Skip to content
← Biology

Biology · Class 12 Science

Gujarat Gseb Class 12 Biology — Real Previous-Year Papers

with complete answers

Real previous-year board papers, year by year — the official exam pattern, the full question paper, and every question solved the concept-first way. Distinct from the chapter-wise textbook bank.

2018–2026
Years of papers
8
Total Papers
8
Real Board Papers
0
Sample papers
573
Real-paper Q & A
0
Sample-paper Q & A

Real board-paper questions available, by year

77 Q2026complete
77 Q2025complete
77 Q2024complete
—2023Paper not yet available
77 Q2022complete
—2021Exam cancelled (COVID-19)
68 Q2020complete
61 Q2019complete
—2018Paper not yet available

2023 — Paper not yet available: This year’s exam was held, but no verified question paper for this subject has been published by any source we check — the official GSEB archive and the public past-paper archives. We publish only a paper we can verify against a real printed original — this one will appear here once it is.

2021 — Exam cancelled (COVID-19): GSEB cancelled the Class-12 Higher Secondary Certificate (HSC) Examination in 2021 due to COVID-19; students were promoted via internal/alternative assessment. No exam was administered that year, so there is no genuine previous-year paper to publish.

2018 — Paper not yet available: This year’s exam was held, but no verified question paper for this subject has been published by any source we check — the official GSEB archive and the public past-paper archives. We publish only a paper we can verify against a real printed original — this one will appear here once it is.

GSEB Higher Secondary Certificate (HSC) Examination 2026 · Set ANNUAL

Real board examination

About this paper

The real Class-12 board examination held in 2026. Every question below is solved the concept-first way. Sample papers are labelled honestly — never shown as a past exam.

Total marks
100
Questions
68
Duration
180 min
Sections
4

The marks / questions / duration above are the official exam pattern. We currently have 77 of this paper’s questions (113% of the full paper), with 77 fully solved. Questions we couldn’t yet extract or verify are held — never shown as complete.

Sections & marks

SectionTypeQuestionsMarks eachTotal
Part ASection Part Amcq50150
Part B — Section ASection Part B — Section Asubjective8216
Part B — Section BSection Part B — Section Bsubjective6318
Part B — Section CSection Part B — Section Csubjective4416
Total68100

The question paper

The questions we hold for this paper, laid out by section. Solutions are on the Answers tab.

Board Examination

Biology

GSEB Higher Secondary Certificate (HSC) Examination 2026 · Set ANNUAL

Series/Set: ANNUALRoll No. ________
Time Allowed: 3 hoursMaximum Marks: 100

General Instructions

  1. This question paper contains 68 questions divided into 4 sections — Part A, Part B — Section A, Part B — Section B, Part B — Section C.
  2. Section Part A comprises 50 questions of 1 mark each (mcq).
  3. Section Part B — Section A comprises 8 questions of 2 marks each (subjective).
  4. Section Part B — Section B comprises 6 questions of 3 marks each (subjective).
  5. Section Part B — Section C comprises 4 questions of 4 marks each (subjective).

Above is the official exam pattern. The questions printed below are those we currently hold for this paper.

Section A

Q1.
At the Micropyler end, Egg apparatus is constitute by the fusion of which cells?
  • (a) 2 Male gamates and one egg cell
  • (b) One Male gamate and 2 egg cells
  • (c) 2 synergid cells and one egg cell
  • (d) 2 synergid cells and one Male gamate
[1]
Q2.
What is the number of chromosomes in primary oocytes and first polar body respectively.
  • (a) 23, 46
  • (b) 46, 23
  • (c) 23, 23
  • (d) 46, 46
[1]
Q3.
Which of the following is an example of hormone releasing IUDs.
  • (a) Multiload 375
  • (b) Lippes loop
  • (c) LNG - 20
  • (d) Projestogen
[1]
Q4.
Which Disorder is caused by Autosomal dominant trait?
  • (a) Myotonic dystrophy
  • (b) Sickle cell anaemia
  • (c) Phenylketonuria
  • (d) Haemophilia
[1]
Q5.
If in any Double helix DNA the percentage of Adenine is 35 then what will be the percentage of cytocine in that DNA?
  • (a) 35%
  • (b) 70%
  • (c) 15%
  • (d) 65%
[1]
Q6.
Which Gas is not used in Miller's experiment?
  • (a) H2S
  • (b) NH3
  • (c) H2O
  • (d) CH4
[1]
Q7.
_____ is a very effective sedative and very useful in patients who have undergone surgery.
  • (a) Heroin
  • (b) Merijuana
  • (c) Barbiturates
  • (d) Morphine
[1]
Page 1 of 10
Q8.
Match the Column - A with Column - B and choose the correct option. Column - A: (1) Lactobacillus (2) Trichoderma polysporum (3) Streptococcus (4) Saccharomyces cerevisiae Column - B: (a) Cyclosporin - A (b) Clot buster (c) Ethanol (d) Curd (a) (1 - b), (2 - a), (3 - d), (4 - c) (b) (1 - d), (2 - a), (3 - b), (4 - c) (c) (1 - d), (2 - b), (3 - c), (4 - a) (d) (1 - a), (2 - b), (3 - c), (4 - d)
[1]
Q9.
Which of the following restriction endonuclease enzyme is discover first in biotechnology. (a) Hind - III (b) Hind - II (c) Eco - RI (d) Bam - HI
[1]
Q10.
At present, how many recombinant therapeutics have been approved for human - use the world over. (a) 30 (b) 12 (c) 20 (d) 24
[1]
Q11.
Which type of population interaction occurs between sea anemone and clown fish. (a) Mutualism (b) Parasitism (c) Commensalism (d) Amensalism
[1]
Q12.
Which of the following is not related to the structure of the Ecosystem? (a) Productivity (b) Degradation (c) Conservation (d) Energy loss
[1]
Q13.
As we move away from the equator towards the poles ___ species of birds find in colombia, ___ species of birds find in New York and ___ species of birds find in Green land respectively. (a) 1200, 105, 56 (b) 1400, 105, 55 (c) 1400, 1200, 105 (d) 1400, 105, 56
[1]
Q14.
It is an example of persistent nucellus - perisperm. (a) Castor (b) Maize (c) Beet (d) Beans
[1]
Q15.
The first movement of the foetus occurs in which month of pragnancy? (a) Second month (b) Third month (c) Fifth month (d) Sixth month
[1]
Q16.
Which of the following is not correct for the contraceptive pills - 'Saheli'. (a) Non - steroidal (b) Take once in a week (c) Low contraceptive value (d) Few side effects
[1]
Q17.
Who proposed the chromosomal Theory of Inheritance? (a) De - Vries and Correns (b) Walter Sutton and Theodore Boveri (c) Mendel (d) Lengdom Down
[1]
Page 2 of 10
Q18.
Which scientist proposed the thought of central Dogma? (a) Fredric Missor (b) Mourish Wilkins (c) James Watson (d) Francis Crick
[1]
Q19.
Select the brain capacity of Homo erectus, Neanderthal man and Homo habilis respectively. (a) 1400 CC, 900 CC, 650 CC (b) 900 CC, 650 CC, 1400 CC (c) 650 CC, 1400 CC, 900 CC (d) 900 CC, 1400 CC, 650 CC
[1]
Q20.
Which of the following is a primary Lymphoid organ? (a) Spleen (b) Thymus (c) Tonsils (d) Small intestine
[1]
Q21.
Choose the correct option for a, b, c and d from the given diagram and give the answer. (a) a - head, b - collar, c - Tail, d - pins (b) a - head, b - pins, c - Tail, d - collar (c) a - collar, b - Tail, c - plate, d - prongs (d) a - head, b - Tail, c - plate, d - pins
[1]
Q22.
If we cut the vactor pBR322 at the place of Bam - HI and make a recombinant DNA from it. Then for which antibitic it remains resistance? (a) Ampicillin (b) Tetracycline (c) Kanamycin (d) Chloramphenicol
[1]
Q23.
The method of producing thousands of plants through tissue culture is known as ____ (a) Somaclones (b) Micro propagation (c) Totipotency (d) Explant
[1]
Q24.
Choose the correct equation of Exponential Growth. (a) dN/dt = rN (b) dT/dN = rN (c) dN/dt = rN [(K - N)/N] (d) dN/dt = rN [(N - K)/K]
[1]
Q25.
Arrange the following steps in the process of decomposition in chronological order. (a) Fragmentation -> leaching -> catabolism -> huminification -> mineralisation (b) Fragmentation -> catabolism -> huminification -> leaching -> mineralisation (c) Fragmentation -> leaching -> huminification -> catabolism -> mineralisation (d) Fragmentation -> catabolism -> leaching -> huminification -> mineralisation
[1]
Q26.
In India, How many wildlife sancturies are there? (a) 448 (b) 446 (c) 447 (d) 450
[1]
Q27.
Assertion (A): The microsporangia develop further and become pollen sacs. Reason (R): Innermost layer of the microsporangium is tapetum (a) A is correct, R is wrong (b) A and R both are correct, R is not correct explanation of A (c) A and R both are correct, R is correct explanation of A (d) A is wrong, R is correct
[1]
Page 3 of 10
Q28.
Government of India legalised MTP in which year? (a) 1970 (b) 1971 (c) 1950 (d) 1951
[1]
Q29.
Which process is used when we want to know the Genotype of an unknown flower? (a) Incomplete Dominance (b) Dihybrid Experiments (c) Monohybrid Experiments (d) Test cross
[1]
Q30.
Which of the following answer is correct if the Template chain of DNA having the sequence TGCATGC of Nitrogen base then what will be the correct sequence of the Nitrogen base in mRNA? (a) ACGTACG (b) ACGUACG (c) ACGATCG (d) UGCATGC
[1]
Q31.
A single step large mutation is known as ____ for speciation. (a) Migration (b) Gene flow (c) Genetic drift (d) Saltation
[1]
Q32.
Which of the following is an example of cynobacteria? (a) Oscillatoria (b) Spirullina (c) Azospirillum (d) Azotobacter
[1]
Q33.
In the process for the biolistics which metal is used for the coating? (a) Iron (b) Nickle (c) Tungsten (d) Silver
[1]
Q34.
Which transgenic animal is being used to test the safety of the polio vaccine? (a) Monkey (b) Rabbit (c) Mice (d) Sheep
[1]
Q35.
If in any pond there were 60 Lotus plants Last year and through reproduction 24 new plants are added, then what will be the birth rate of offspring per Lotus per year? (a) 2.4 (b) 0.4 (c) 1.4 (d) 0.2
[1]
Q36.
What is the percentage of Photosynthetically Active Radiation (PAR) in the plant of the incident solar radiation? (a) 50% (b) 12% (c) 2 - 10% (d) 20%
[1]
Q37.
Sacred groves are found ____ (a) Hills in Meghalaya (b) Hills in Asam (c) Hills in Uttar Pradesh (d) Hills in Punjab
[1]
Page 4 of 10
Q38.
Which of the following is posses only cross - pollination? (a) Self in - compatibility (b) Self compatibility (c) Self fertilisation (d) Bisexual flower
[1]
Q39.
In which method a sperm is directly injected into the ovum? (a) IUI (b) GIFT (c) ICSI (d) ZIFT
[1]
Q40.
'The code is nearly Universal'. It is a exception for which of the following? (a) Drosophilla (b) Bacteria (c) Human (d) Protozoans
[1]
Q41.
Which of the following is an example of fish like reptiles during evolution that went back from Land into water to evolve? (a) Tyrannosaurus (b) Pelycosaurs (c) Archaeopteryx (d) Ichthyosaurs
[1]
Q42.
The value of BOD is ____ in polluted water and ____ in drinkable water. (a) Low, High (b) High, Low (c) Low, Low (d) High, High
[1]
Q43.
Which of the following is known as 'molecular scissors'? (a) Taq polymerase (b) Palindromic sequence (c) Restriction Enzymes (d) Recombinant DNA
[1]
Q44.
From the transgenic animal, which human protein is used for the treatment of emphysema? (a) alpha - lactalbumin (b) Thyroxin (c) alpha - 1 - antitrypsin (d) Insulin
[1]
Q45.
Choose the correct equation for population growth. (a) N(t+1) = Nt [(B + D) - (I + E)] (b) N(t+1) = Nt + [(B + D) - (I + E)] (c) N(t+1) = Nt + [(B + I) - (D + E)] (d) N(t+1) = Nt [(B + I) - (D + E)]
[1]
Q46.
The annual net primary productivity of the whole biosphere is approximately ____ (a) 150 billion tons (b) 160 billion tons (c) 170 billion tons (d) 180 billion tons
[1]
Q47.
Choose the correct option for given diagram. (a) Multicarpellary, apocarpous gynoecium (b) Multicarpellary, syncarpous gynoecium (c) Monocarpellary, apocarpous gynoecium (d) Monocarpellary, syncarpous gynoecium
[1]
Page 5 of 10
Q48.
Which one is the correct option for sterilisation? (a) Prevent the formation of Gamete (b) Block the transport of Gamete (c) Prevent the fertilisation of Gamete (d) This method is done in only female
[1]
Q49.
When the first non - cellular forms of life could have originated? (a) 3 billion years ago (b) 2 billion years ago (c) 4 billion years ago (d) 4.5 billion years ago
[1]
Q50.
Which of the correct option for the treatment of Adenosine Deaminase deficiency (ADA)? (a) Surgery (b) Gene Therapy (c) Immunisation (d) Radio Therapy
[1]
Section B

Q1.
Write down the economic importance of pollen grains.
[2]
Q2.
Write down the difference between the word - 'Nirodh and Condom'. Give their importance also.
[2]
Q3.
Write down the special features of commelina flowers.
[2]
Q4.
Explain Lactational amenorrhea.
[2]
Q5.
Write down about the incomplete dominance, if starch grain size is considered as the phenotype in pea plant.
[2]
Page 6 of 10
Q6.
Explain : Monocistronic structural Gene.
[2]
Q7.
Write down any two factors that can affect Hardy Weinberg equlibrium in detail.
[2]
Q8.
Write down the name of pathogen and symptoms of the disease which causes amoebiasis.
[2]
Q9.
Write down the importance of bacteria and cynobacteria that are use in organic farming.
[2]
Q10.
Draw a diagram of population growth curve for Logistic growth also write down the equation of it.
[2]
Q11.
Explain : Gause's 'Competitive Exclusion Principle'.
[2]
Q12.
Explain : Primary productivity.
[2]
Section C

Q1.
Explain the external genitalia of female.
[3]
Page 7 of 10
Q2.
Write down the Biochemical characterisation of Transforming principle.
[3]
Q3.
Explain : Adaptive Radiation.
[3]
Q4.
Draw : 'Life cycle of plasmodium' by a neat and labelled diagram only.
[3]
Q5.
Write down about the Bio-gas plant. (Diagram is not required)
[3]
Q6.
Explain : Genetically Engineered Insulin.
[3]
Q7.
Explain : Bio-Piracy.
[3]
Q8.
By taking a small pond as an example, write down a complex interaction in an aquatic ecosystem.
[3]
Page 8 of 10
Q9.
Write down the 'rivet popper hypothesis' used by ecologist Paul Ehrlich.
[3]
Section D

Q1.
Explain the various events during a menstrual cycle. (Diagram not needed)
[4]
Q2.
Write down the events starts from formation of zygote to implantation in Human with diagram.
[4]
Q3.
Explain : Replication of Retrovirus with the help of neat and labelled diagram only.
[4]
Q4.
Write down the different techniques for transform the Recombinant DNA into the Host.
[4]
Q5.
Explain : Haemophilia and Phenylketonuria.
[4]
Page 9 of 10
Q6.
Explain : Mendel's monohybrid experiments and low of Dominance.
[4]
Page 10 of 10