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Q.The function 'f' given by f(x) = log(cos x) is strictly decreasing on

(a) (0, π/2)
(b) (π/2, π)
(c) (3π/2, 2π)
(d) None of the above
Himachal HpboseHPBOSE Plus Two Board 2026MCQ· 1mImportance★★★★★
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ff is decreasing exactly where f′(x)<0f'(x)<0 AND the function is actually defined there (needs cos⁡x>0\cos x>0).

f(x)=log⁡(cos⁡x)f(x) = \log(\cos x), so f′(x)=−sin⁡xcos⁡x=−tan⁡xf'(x) = \dfrac{-\sin x}{\cos x} = -\tan x.

For ff to be strictly decreasing, we need f′(x)<0⇒tan⁡x>0f'(x) < 0 \Rightarrow \tan x > 0.

But we also need cos⁡x>0\cos x > 0 for log⁡(cos⁡x)\log(\cos x) to even be defined (real-valued).

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