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Biology · 2nd Puc Science

Karnataka PUC 2nd Puc Science Biology — Real Previous-Year Papers

with complete answers

Real previous-year board papers, year by year — the official exam pattern, the full question paper, and every question solved the concept-first way. Distinct from the chapter-wise textbook bank.

2018–2026
Years of papers
7
Total Papers
7
Real Board Papers
0
Sample papers
304
Real-paper Q & A
0
Sample-paper Q & A

Real board-paper questions available, by year

44 Q2026complete
44 Q2025complete
47 Q2024complete
—2023Paper not available
50 Q2022complete
—2021Paper not available
37 Q2020complete
45 Q2019complete
37 Q2018complete

2023 — Paper not available: We publish a Karnataka II PUC board question paper only after verifying it against the official printed original from the Department of Pre-University Education (KSEAB / DPUE). No such verified paper is available for this year, so we show none rather than an unconfirmed copy.

2021 — Paper not available: We publish a Karnataka II PUC board question paper only after verifying it against the official printed original from the Department of Pre-University Education (KSEAB / DPUE). No such verified paper is available for this year, so we show none rather than an unconfirmed copy.

Karnataka II PUC Board 2026 · Set V1

Real board examination

About this paper

The real Class-12 board examination held in 2026. Every question below is solved the concept-first way. Sample papers are labelled honestly — never shown as a past exam.

Total marks
70
Questions
44
Duration
180 min
Sections
4

The marks / questions / duration above are the official exam pattern. We currently have 44 of this paper’s questions (100% of the full paper), with 44 fully solved. Questions we couldn’t yet extract or verify are held — never shown as complete.

Sections & marks

SectionTypeQuestionsMarks eachTotal
ASection A15 MCQ + 5 Fill in the blanks — answer all20120
BSection BShort answer (3–5 sentences) — answer any 57214
CSection CShort answer (40–80 words) — answer any 57321
DSection DLong answer (200–250 words) — answer any 5 (Section-V any 4 + Section-VI any 1)10550
Total4470

The question paper

The questions we hold for this paper, laid out by section. Solutions are on the Answers tab.

Board Examination

Biology

Karnataka II PUC Board 2026 · Set V1

Series/Set: V1Roll No. ________
Time Allowed: 3 hoursMaximum Marks: 70

General Instructions

  1. This question paper contains 44 questions divided into 4 sections — A, B, C, D.
  2. Section A comprises 20 questions of 1 mark each (15 MCQ + 5 Fill in the blanks — answer all).
  3. Section B comprises 7 questions of 2 marks each (Short answer (3–5 sentences) — answer any 5).
  4. Section C comprises 7 questions of 3 marks each (Short answer (40–80 words) — answer any 5).
  5. Section D comprises 10 questions of 5 marks each (Long answer (200–250 words) — answer any 5 (Section-V any 4 + Section-VI any 1)).

Above is the official exam pattern. The questions printed below are those we currently hold for this paper.

Section A

15 MCQ + 5 Fill in the blanks — answer all · 1 mark each · 20 of 20 shown

Q1.
In artificial hybridisation approach, if the female parent produces unisexual flowers, there is no need for
  • (a) Bagging
  • (b) Tagging
  • (c) Rebagging
  • (d) Emasculation
[1]
Q2.
The cells that secrete androgens are
  • (a) Sertoli cells
  • (b) Leydig cells
  • (c) Germ cells
  • (d) Spermatogonia
[1]
Q3.
Sexually transmitted infection that can be completely curable is
  • (a) Gonorrhea
  • (b) Hepatitis-B
  • (c) AIDS
  • (d) Genital herpes
[1]
Q4.
Identify the correct match.
  • (a) XO - Male grasshopper
  • (b) XX - Male Drosophila
  • (c) ZW - Male bird
  • (d) ZZ - Female bird
[1]
Q5.
Statement I : A nitrogenous base is linked to the -OH of IC pentose sugar through N-glycosidic linkage to form a nucleoside. Statement II : Two nucleosides are linked through 3'-5' phosphodiester linkage to form a dinucleoside.
  • (a) Both statement I and statement II are correct
  • (b) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
  • (c) Statement I is correct, but statement II is incorrect
  • (d) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
[1]
Q6.
Correct sequence of evolution of animal groups according to geological time scale is
  • (a) Amphibians - Fishes - Reptiles - Mammals
  • (b) Mammals - Fishes - Reptiles - Amphibians
  • (c) Reptiles - Amphibians - Fishes - Mammals
  • (d) Fishes - Amphibians - Reptiles - Mammals
[1]
Page 1 of 7
Q7.
The molecules trapped in the lymph nodes responsible for the activation of lymphocytes present there and cause the immune response are (a) Antibodies (b) Anti-histamines (c) Antigens (d) Interferons
[1]
Q8.
The plants with hallucinogenic properties are (a) Atropa and Cannabis (b) Datura and Atropa (c) Datura and Cannabis (d) Atropa and Papaver
[1]
Q9.
Match the List-I with List-II List-I A. Rhizobium B. Clostridium C. Aspergillus D. Methanogens List-II 1. Citric acid 2. Gobar gas 3. N2 fixation symbiotically 4. Butyric acid (a) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4 (b) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4 (c) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2 (d) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
[1]
Q10.
Which of the following is the correct representation of primer annealing step in PCR? (a) 5'——— 3' / 5'——— 3' (short primer strands shown near 5' ends) (b) 3'——— 5' / 3'——— 5' (short primer strands shown) (c) 5'——— 3' / 3'——— 5' (short primer strands shown) (d) 3'——— 5' / 5'——— 3' (short primer strands shown)
[1]
Q11.
Identify the incorrect statement. (a) First letter of the restriction enzyme is derived from genus of the bacterium (b) Second and third letters of the restriction enzyme are derived from species of the bacterium (c) The fourth letter of the restriction enzyme is derived from the strain of the bacterium (d) The Roman letter after the strain indicate the Roman origin of bacterium from which the restriction enzyme is isolated
[1]
Q12.
The corn borers are controlled by the protein encoded by the gene (a) Cry I Ab (b) Cry II Ab (c) Cry IV Ab (d) Cry I Ac
[1]
Q13.
Herbivores in a broad ecological context not very different from (a) Commensals (b) Predators (c) Parasites (d) Producers
[1]
Q14.
Dead plant remains such as leaves, bark and flowers constitute (a) Debris (b) Humus (c) Detritus (d) Fossil
[1]
Q15.
An estimate of about 7 million global species diversity was made by (a) Edward Wilson (b) Robert May (c) David Tilman (d) Paul Ehlrich
[1]
Q16.
The initial few days of milk produced after parturition is ______.
[1]
Page 2 of 7
Q17.
Homo erectus had a brain size around ______.
[1]
Q18.
Human immuno deficiency virus replicates in ______.
[1]
Q19.
A small amount of curd added to the fresh milk as ______.
[1]
Q20.
Based on currently available species inventories, 70% of species recorded are ______.
[1]
Section B

Short answer (3–5 sentences) — answer any 5 · 2 marks each · 7 of 7 shown

Q1.
Draw a labelled diagram of mature 2-celled pollen grain.
[2]
Q2.
How ZIFT is different from IUI?
[2]
Q3.
Sketch pedigree symbols for : a) Sex unspecified b) Mating.
[2]
Q4.
Mention four properties of a genetic material.
[2]
Q5.
What are homologous organs? Give an example.
[2]
Page 3 of 7
Q6.
Antibiotics act “Against life” as well as “prolife” to organisms. Comment.
[2]
Q7.
List “The Evil quartet” of biodiversity losses in a given habitat.
[2]
Section C

Short answer (40–80 words) — answer any 5 · 3 marks each · 7 of 7 shown

Q1.
Draw a diagram of monocot embryo and label three parts.
[3]
Q2.
What is placenta? Mention two functions of placenta.
[3]
Q3.
Explain the modes of action of Intra Uterine Devices (IUDs).
[3]
Q4.
State Hardy-Weinberg principle and mention four factors that affect Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.
[3]
Q5.
Mention the diseases caused by the following pathogens : a) Ascaris b) Haemophilus influenzae c) Trichophyton.
[3]
Page 4 of 7
Q6.
Name the bioactive molecules that are produced by the following microbes : a) Streptococcus b) Trichoderma polysporum c) Monascus Purpureus.
[3]
Q7.
Sketch and label the diagram of pyramid of biomass in a terrestrial ecosystem.
[3]
Section D

Long answer (200–250 words) — answer any 5 (Section-V any 4 + Section-VI any 1) · 5 marks each · 10 of 10 shown

Q1.
Explain the formation of a mature embryo sac from a functional megaspore.
[5]
Q2.
Draw a diagrammatic sectional view of human female reproductive system and label five parts.
[5]
Q3.
Schematically represent the results of inheritance of incomplete dominance in snapdragon plant.
[5]
Page 5 of 7
Q4.
Describe the regulation of lactose operon in bacteria.
[5]
Q5.
Answer the following : a) Define contact inhibition and metastasis. (2) b) Explain the treatment of cancer. (3)
[5]
Q6.
Write a note on benefits of transgenic animals to mankind.
[5]
Q7.
Answer the following : a) Mention an equation to calculate the population density at time "t +1". (1) b) Population density fluctuates due to change in four basic processes. Name and define these four basic processes. (4)
[5]
Q8.
Describe blood associated gene disorders linked to sex chromosome and chromosome 16.
[5]
Page 6 of 7
Q9.
Refer to the schematic representation of DNA fingerprinting thoroughly and answer the given questions : a) How many short tandem repeats are shown in the 7th maternal and paternal chromosomes of individual A and B? (2) b) How many short tandem repeats are separated on gel from individual A and B? (1) c) Identify and mention the numbers of short tandem repeats that are common to both individuals A and B. (1) d) DNA from crime scene matches with which individual? (1)
[5]
Q10.
Refer to the given diagram and answer the questions that follow : a) Which enzymes can be used for insertional inactivation of selectable marker genes? (2) b) Vector should not have more than one cloning site for the same restriction enzyme. Give reason. (1) c) What is the significance of rop? (1) d) Which region of the plasmid controls copy number? (1)
[5]
Page 7 of 7