Skip to content
Question of 104

Q.Let f:N→Yf : N \to Y be a function defined as f(x)=4x+3f(x) = 4x + 3, where Y={y∈N:y=4x+3 for some x∈N}Y = \{ y \in N : y = 4x + 3 \text{ for some } x \in N \}. Show that ff is invertible. Find the inverse of ff.

Karnataka PUCKarnataka II PUC Board 2024Subjective· 5mImportance★★★★★
0% · 0/104 Questions
🔒 Locked · start free trial →

You're viewing a preview — the full solution, concept, methods & PYQ mapping are locked.

Start your 14-day free trial to unlock the full solution →

f(x)=4x+3f(x)=4x+3 is one-one and onto its co-domain YY, hence invertible, with f−1(y)=y−34f^{-1}(y)=\dfrac{y-3}{4}.

Step 1 — Show ff is one-one (injective).

Suppose f(x1)=f(x2)f(x_1)=f(x_2) for x1,x2∈Nx_1,x_2\in N. Then

4x1+3=4x2+3 ⇒ 4x1=4x2 ⇒ x1=x2.4x_1+3=4x_2+3\ \Rightarrow\ 4x_1=4x_2\ \Rightarrow\ x_1=x_2.

So distinct inputs give distinct outputs — ff is one-one.

Step 2 — Show ff is onto (surjective).

By definition Y={y∈N:y=4x+3 for some x∈N}Y=\{y\in N: y=4x+3\text{ for some }x\in N\}. So for every y∈Yy\in Y there already exists an x∈Nx\in N with f(x)=4x+3=yf(x)=4x+3=y. Thus every element of the co-domain YY has a pre-image — ff is onto.

Step 3 — Conclude invertibility.

Since ff is both one-one and onto, ff is a bijection and therefore invertible.

Step 4 — Find the inverse rule.

Let y=f(x)=4x+3y=f(x)=4x+3. Solve for xx: …

Unlock everything free for 14 days

  • Full step-by-step solutions
  • Concept-first explanations
  • Methods, shortcuts & mistakes
  • PYQ mapping + timed mock tests

Full access for 14 days. No credit card required.