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Q.A person buys a lottery ticket in 50 lotteries, in each of which his chance of winning a prize is 1100\dfrac{1}{100}. What is the probability that he will win a prize at least once?

Manipur CohsemCOHSEM Manipur Higher Secondary Board 2023Subjective· 2mImportance★★★★★
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Use the binomial model: P(at least one win)=1−P(no win in any of 50 tries)P(\text{at least one win}) = 1 - P(\text{no win in any of 50 tries}).

Let p=1100p = \dfrac{1}{100} be the probability of winning a prize on a single ticket, so q=1−p=99100q = 1-p = \dfrac{99}{100} is the probability of not winning.

Since the 50 draws are independent, this is a binomial situation with n=50n=50 trials.

P(no prize in all 50 tries)=q50=(99100)50P(\text{no prize in all 50 tries}) = q^{50} = \left(\frac{99}{100}\right)^{50}

P(at least one prize)=1−P(no prize)=1−(99100)50P(\text{at least one prize}) = 1 - P(\text{no prize}) = 1 - \left(\frac{99}{100}\right)^{50}

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