Biology · Class 12 Science

Meghalaya Mbose Class 12 Biology — Real Previous-Year Papers

with complete answers

Real previous-year board papers, year by year — the official exam pattern, the full question paper, and every question solved the concept-first way. Distinct from the chapter-wise textbook bank.

2018–2026
Years of papers: 15
Total Papers: 15
Real Board Papers: 0
Sample papers: 405
Real-paper Q & A: 0
Sample-paper Q & A

Real board-paper questions available, by year

38 Q2026complete

41 Q2025complete

39 Q2024complete

39 Q2023complete

41 Q2022complete

75 Q20213 sets

64 Q20203 sets

34 Q20192 sets

34 Q20182 sets

MBOSE Meghalaya Intermediate Board 2026 · Set ANNUAL

Real board examination

About this paper

The real Class-12 board examination held in 2026. Every question below is solved the concept-first way. Sample papers are labelled honestly — never shown as a past exam.

Total marks: 70
Questions: 38
Duration: 180 min
Sections: 5

The marks / questions / duration above are the official exam pattern. We currently have 38 of this paper’s questions (100% of the full paper), with 38 fully solved. Questions we couldn’t yet extract or verify are held — never shown as complete.

Sections & marks

Section	Type	Questions	Marks each	Total
ASection A	choice	12	1	12
BSection B	choice	7	1	7
CSection C	compulsory	5	2	10
DSection D	compulsory	11	3	33
ESection E	compulsory	3	5	15
Total		38		70

The question paper

The questions we hold for this paper, laid out by section. Solutions are on the Answers tab.

Board Examination

Biology

MBOSE Meghalaya Intermediate Board 2026 · Set ANNUAL

Series/Set: ANNUALRoll No. ________

Time Allowed: 3 hoursMaximum Marks: 70

General Instructions

This question paper contains 38 questions divided into 5 sections — A, B, C, D, E.
Section A comprises 12 questions of 1 mark each (choice).
Section B comprises 7 questions of 1 mark each (choice).
Section C comprises 5 questions of 2 marks each (compulsory).
Section D comprises 11 questions of 3 marks each (compulsory).
Section E comprises 3 questions of 5 marks each (compulsory).

Above is the official exam pattern. The questions printed below are those we currently hold for this paper.

Section A

choice · 1 mark each · 12 of 12 shown

Q1.

The factor which is essential for genetic equilibrium of allele frequencies in a population is

(a) No mutation
(b) genetic drift
(c) gene flow
(d) genetic recombination

[1]

Q2.

Which of the following cells are present in the egg apparatus?

(a) Antipodal cells
(b) Synergids
(c) Synergids and one egg cell
(d) Polar nuclei and one egg cell

[1]

Q3.

The addition of adenylate residue at the 3' end of a template in an independent manner is called

(a) splicing
(b) tailing
(c) capping
(d) split gene

[1]

Q4.

Down's syndrome is caused due to

(a) non-disjunction of chromosome number 21
(b) deletion of chromosome number 21
(c) non-disjunction of chromosome number 16
(d) deletion of chromosome number 16

[1]

Q5.

The plant from which opioids are extracted is

(a) Erythroxylum coca
(b) Papaver somniferum
(c) Cannabis sativa
(d) All of the above

[1]

Q6.

The first isolated restriction endonuclease is

(a) EcoRI
(b) Hind II
(c) Hind I
(d) EcoRII

[1]

Page 1 of 6

Q7.

What is the full form of GEAC? (a) Genome Engineering Action Committee (b) Ground Environment Action Committee (c) Genetic and Environment Approval Committee (d) Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee

[1]

Q8.

Factors contributing to population growth are (a) natality and immigration (b) natality and emigration (c) mortality and emigration (d) immigration and emigration

[1]

Q9.

Which of the following is not a functional unit of the ecosystem? (a) Energy flow (b) Decomposition (c) Stratification (d) Productivity

[1]

Q10.

In incomplete dominance, the expected phenotypic and genotypic ratios are (a) 1 : 1 : 2 and 2 : 1 : 1 (b) 1 : 2 : 1 and 1 : 2 : 1 (c) 1 : 1 : 1 and 1 : 1 : 1 (d) 1 : 1 and 1 : 1

[1]

Q11.

In a grass family, the cotyledon is called (a) plumule (b) radicle (c) embryo (d) scutellum

[1]

Q12.

A patient had undergone an organ transplant. To prevent rejection of the transplanted organ, which immuno-suppressive agent will be advised for use? (a) Cyclosporin-A produced from *Clostridium butylicum* (b) Cyclosporin-A produced from *Trichoderma polysporum* (c) Statins produced from *Monascus purpureus* (d) Statins produced from *Streptococcus thermophilus*

[1]

Section B

choice · 1 mark each · 7 of 7 shown

Q1.

Give two examples of terminal method of contraception. ((1)/(2)+(1)/(2)=1)

[1]

Q2.

What is splicing?

[1]

Q3.

Name one substance which is used for cancer immunotherapy.

[1]

Page 2 of 6

Q4.

What are biodiversity hotspots?

[1]

Q5.

Colonies of what colour will be formed if the recombinant DNA fails to get inserted into the gene coding for β-galactosidase?

[1]

Q6.

DNA fragments separated by gel electrophoresis can be visualized only after staining. (a) Name the compound used for staining DNA. (b) Name the light used for visualization. ((1)/(2)+(1)/(2)=1)

[1]

Q7.

A female suffering from Turner's syndrome has 45 chromosomes. She will have— (a) how many autosomes; (b) how many X-chromosome(s)? ((1)/(2)+(1)/(2)=1)

[1]

Section C

compulsory · 2 marks each · 5 of 5 shown

Q1.

(a) What is microsporogenesis? What would be the ploidy of the cells of the tetrad? (1+1=2) **OR** (b) These cells are responsible for the secretion of androgen. Name these cells and mention the function of their secretion. (1+1=2)

[2]

Q2.

Define alleles. Where are the two alleles of a gene pair located? (1+1=2)

[2]

Q3.

What is the role of a vector in genetic engineering? Name the first artificial cloning vector. (1+1=2)

[2]

Q4.

Differentiate between convergent and divergent evolution. (2)

[2]

Page 3 of 6

Q5.

(a) Draw a well-labelled diagram of an antibody molecule. (2) **OR** (b) Name any two microbes used in the following: (i) Household products (ii) Industrial products. ((1)/(2)+(1)/(2)+(1)/(2)+(1)/(2)=2)

[2]

Section D

compulsory · 3 marks each · 11 of 11 shown

Q1.

ADA is a genetic disorder due to the absence of an enzyme. Name the enzyme that is absent.

[1]

Q2.

ADA is a genetic disorder due to the absence of an enzyme. How can this disorder be corrected?

[2]

Q3.

When is amniocentesis performed in humans? How is it misused? (1(1)/(2)+1(1)/(2)=3)

[3]

Q4.

What is triple fusion? Where does it take place? Name the nuclei involved in triple fusion. (1+1+1=3)

[3]

Q5.

(a) Study the diagram given below and answer the following questions: [FIGURE] (i) Name the diagram. (ii) Identify the Part A and Part B. (1+1+1=3) **OR** (b) Draw the structure of a mature ovum and label it. (3)

[3]

Q6.

Two water samples A and B were collected. The BOD of sample A and sample B were recorded as 300 mg/L and 500 mg/L respectively. Give the full form of BOD. Which sample of water is more polluted? Give reasons. (1+1+1=3)

[3]

Page 4 of 6

Q7.

(a) The immune system of a person is suppressed. (i) Name the disease the person is suffering from. (ii) What is the causative organism? (iii) Write one mode of prevention for the disease. (1+1+1=3) **OR** (b) What are transgenic animals? Give two applications of transgenic animals. (1+2=3)

[3]

Q8.

Work out a cross showing marriage between a haemophilic man (XhY) and a carrier woman (XhX). Write the phenotypes of their children. (1(1)/(2)+1(1)/(2)=3)

[3]

Q9.

Describe the role of microbes in secondary treatment of sewage. (3)

[3]

Q10.

(a) What is pollination? What are the characteristics of flowers pollinated by insects? (1+2=3) **OR** (b) Describe adaptive radiation with the help of an example. (3)

[3]

Q11.

Define HGP. Write its salient features. (1+2=3)

[3]

Section E

compulsory · 5 marks each · 3 of 3 shown

Q1.

(a) (i) What is menstrual cycle? (ii) Explain the different phases of menstrual cycle. (1+4=5) **OR** (b) What is population? Explain the different types of negative interactions in a population. (1+4=5)

[5]

Page 5 of 6

Q2.

(a) (i) State Mendel's law of dominance. (ii) Explain with the help of a suitable cross. (iii) Give the scientific name of the plant Mendel used for his experiment. (1+3+1=5) **OR** (b) Differentiate between *in situ* and *ex situ* conservation. Describe why we should conserve biodiversity. (2+3=5)

[5]

Q3.

(a) (i) Write the full form of PCR. (ii) With the help of a diagram, explain the mechanism involved in PCR. (1+4=5) **OR** (b) What is an operon? Explain the regulation of gene expression in *lac* operon with suitable diagrams. (1+4=5)

[5]

Page 6 of 6