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Q.Prove that : \int_{0}^{pi/4} log(1 + tan x) dx = (pi/8) log 2.

Uttarakhand UbseUttarakhand Board Intermediate (Class 12) 2018Subjective· 4mImportance★★★★★
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Main: the King property gives 2I=π4log⁡22I=\tfrac{\pi}{4}\log2, so I=π8log⁡2I=\tfrac{\pi}{8}\log2. OR: ∫exsin⁡x dx=ex2(sin⁡x−cos⁡x)+C\int e^x\sin x\,dx=\tfrac{e^x}{2}(\sin x-\cos x)+C.

Main part. Let I=∫0π/4log⁡(1+tan⁡x) dxI=\displaystyle\int_0^{\pi/4}\log(1+\tan x)\,dx. Apply ∫0af(x) dx=∫0af(a−x) dx\int_0^a f(x)\,dx=\int_0^a f(a-x)\,dx with a=π4a=\tfrac{\pi}{4}:

I=∫0π/4log⁡ ⁣(1+tan⁡ ⁣(π4−x))dx.I=\int_0^{\pi/4}\log\!\Big(1+\tan\!\big(\tfrac{\pi}{4}-x\big)\Big)dx.

Since tan⁡ ⁣(π4−x)=1−tan⁡x1+tan⁡x\tan\!\big(\tfrac{\pi}{4}-x\big)=\dfrac{1-\tan x}{1+\tan x},

1+tan⁡ ⁣(π4−x)=(1+tan⁡x)+(1−tan⁡x)1+tan⁡x=21+tan⁡x.1+\tan\!\big(\tfrac{\pi}{4}-x\big)=\frac{(1+\tan x)+(1-\tan x)}{1+\tan x}=\frac{2}{1+\tan x}.

So

I=∫0π/4[log⁡2−log⁡(1+tan⁡x)]dx=π4log⁡2−I.I=\int_0^{\pi/4}\big[\log2-\log(1+\tan x)\big]dx=\frac{\pi}{4}\log2-I.

∴ 2I=π4log⁡2  ⟹  I=π8log⁡2.\therefore\ 2I=\frac{\pi}{4}\log2\implies I=\frac{\pi}{8}\log2.

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