Q.Prove that : \int_{0}^{pi/4} log(1 + tan x) dx = (pi/8) log 2.
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The King Property of Definite Integrals
Walk a path from a to b measuring something at each step; now walk it backwards from b to a. The King Property says the total is unchanged — provided you also reverse how you measure. It is one of the most useful shortcuts for definite integrals.
∫abf(x)dx=∫abf(a+b−x)dx
The limits stay a to b; only the argument changes, x→a+b−x.
Where it comes from
Substitute t=a+b−x, so dx=−dt; when x=a, t=b and when x=b, t=a:
∫abf(x)dx=∫baf(a+b−t)(−dt)=∫abf(a+b−t)dt.
Renaming t back to x gives the result. So it is not a trick — just substitution.
Why it helps
Adding the original integral to its "mirror" often collapses the integrand. For instance, with I=∫0π/2sinx+cosxsinxdx, the property replaces sinx by cosx (since sin(2π−x)=cosx). Adding the two forms:
2I=∫0π/2sinx+cosxsinx+cosxdx=2π,I=4π.
Reach for it when the integrand has sinx,cosx,tanx over [0,π/2] or [0,π] and f(a+b−x) simplifies. If the swapped form is no easier, it will not help.
The limits do not change — only the function's argument does. …
Use the King property ∫0af(x)dx=∫0af(a−x)dx on the main integral; the OR is a by-parts integral. …
Main: the King property gives 2I=4πlog2, so I=8πlog2. OR: ∫exsinxdx=2ex(sinx−cosx)+C.
Main part. Let I=∫0π/4log(1+tanx)dx. Apply ∫0af(x)dx=∫0af(a−x)dx with a=4π:
I=∫0π/4log(1+tan(4π−x))dx.
Since tan(4π−x)=1+tanx1−tanx,
1+tan(4π−x)=1+tanx(1+tanx)+(1−tanx)=1+tanx2.
So
I=∫0π/4[log2−log(1+tanx)]dx=4πlog2−I.
∴ 2I=4πlog2⟹I=8πlog2.
…
Showing the 12 most recent of 14 on this concept.
- CBSE 2026Set A1 markMCQQ.∫0π/2sinx+cosxsinxdx=(a) π(b) 2π(c) 0(d) 4π
›Reveal solutionSolution
Add the integral to its x→2π−x image to get 2I=2π, so I=4π.
Let I=∫0π/2sinx+cosxsinxdx. Replacing x by 2π−x swaps sin and cos:
I=∫0π/2cosx+sinxcosxdx.
Adding the two expressions for I:
…
- CBSE 2026Set A1 markMCQQ.∫0aa−x+xxdx=(a) a(b) 2a(c) 2a(d) 3a
›Reveal solutionSolution
Use ∫0af(x)dx=∫0af(a−x)dx; the substitution swaps x and a−x, giving I=2a.
Let I=∫0aa−x+xxdx. Replacing x by a−x:
I=∫0ax+a−xa−xdx.
Adding the two forms:
…
- CBSE 2026Set ANNUAL1 markMCQQ.∫ (from π/6 to π/3) √(cos x) / (√(sin x) + √(cos x)) dx is equal to:(a) π/4(b) π/6(c) π/12(d) π/2
›Reveal solutionSolution
Using the property ∫abf(x)dx=∫abf(a+b−x)dx, the integral equals its own "partner" integral, so twice the integral equals the length of the interval.
Let I=∫π/6π/3sinx+cosxcosxdx
Using the property ∫abf(x)dx=∫abf(a+b−x)dx with a=π/6,b=π/3, so a+b=π/2:
I=∫π/6π/3sin(π/2−x)+cos(π/2−x)cos(π/2−x)dx=∫π/6π/3cosx+sinxsinxdx
Call this second integral J. By relabeling, I=J.
Adding the original definitions of I and J: …
- CBSE 2025Set IX1 markMCQQ.The value of ∫0π/21+tanxdx will be(a) 0(b) 2π(c) 4π(d) 8π
›Reveal solutionSolution
By the king-property ∫0af(x)dx=∫0af(a−x)dx, I=4π; option (c).
Concept. The property ∫0af(x)dx=∫0af(a−x)dx turns a hard integral into a solvable pair.
Let I=∫0π/21+tanxdx. Replace x by 2π−x; since tan(2π−x)=cotx, …
- CBSE 2025Set E1 markMCQQ.∫0π/2sinx+cosxcosxdx=(a) π(b) π/2(c) π/4(d) 2π
›Reveal solutionSolution
Using ∫0π/2f(x)dx=∫0π/2f(2π−x)dx, add the two forms: 2I=2π, so I=4π.
Let I=∫0π/2sinx+cosxcosxdx. Replacing x→2π−x swaps sin and cos:
I=∫0π/2cosx+sinxsinxdx.
Adding the two expressions for I:
…
- CBSE 2025Set E1 markMCQQ.∫0π/2logtanxdx=(a) π/4(b) π/2(c) 0(d) π
›Reveal solutionSolution
Replacing x→2π−x turns logtanx into logcotx=−logtanx, so I=−I⇒I=0.
Let I=∫0π/2logtanxdx. Using ∫0af(x)dx=∫0af(a−x)dx with a=2π:
…
- CBSE 2025Set ANNUAL1 markMCQQ.∫ (from π/6 to π/3) √(cos x) / (√(sin x) + √(cos x)) dx is equal to:(a) π/4(b) π/6(c) π/12(d) π/2
›Reveal solutionSolution
Use the property ∫abf(x)dx=∫abf(a+b−x)dx: adding the original integral to its "flipped" version gives a constant, and by symmetry the two halves are equal.
Let I=∫π/6π/3sinx+cosxcosxdx.
Here a=π/6, b=π/3, so a+b=π/2. Replacing x by a+b−x=2π−x, and using cos(2π−x)=sinx, sin(2π−x)=cosx:
I=∫π/6π/3cosx+sinxsinxdx.
…
- CBSE 2024Set D1 markMCQQ.∫0ax+a−xxdx=(a) a(b) 2a(c) 2a(d) 3a
›Reveal solutionSolution
Adding the integral to its x→a−x image gives 2I=a, so I=2a.
Let I=∫0ax+a−xxdx.
Using ∫0af(x)dx=∫0af(a−x)dx:
I=∫0aa−x+xa−xdx.
…
- CBSE 2023Set ANNUAL1 markMCQQ.If f(a+b−x)=f(x), then ∫abxf(x)dx is equal to-(a) 0(b) 2a+b∫abf(b+x)dx(c) 2b−a∫abf(x)dx(d) 2a+b∫abf(x)dx
›Reveal solutionSolution
This is a standard King's-rule property of definite integrals.
Let I=∫abxf(x)dx. Using the property ∫abg(x)dx=∫abg(a+b−x)dx:
I=∫ab(a+b−x)f(a+b−x)dx=∫ab(a+b−x)f(x)dx (since f(a+b−x)=f(x))
I=(a+b)∫abf(x)dx−∫abxf(x)dx=(a+b)∫abf(x)dx−I
…
- CBSE 2022Set FF1 markMCQQ.The value of ∫0π/21+tanxdx will be:(a) 0(b) 2π(c) 4π(d) 8π
›Reveal solutionSolution
By the King's-rule property, I=4π — option (c).
Concept. Use ∫0af(x)dx=∫0af(a−x)dx with a=2π.
Let I=∫0π/21+tanxdx. Replacing x→2π−x turns tanx into cotx:
I=∫0π/21+cotxdx=∫0π/2tanx+1tanxdx. …
- CBSE 2021Set I1 markMCQQ.∫0π/2logcotθdθ=(a) 2πlog2(b) 4πlog2(c) 2πlog2(d) 0
›Reveal solutionSolution
∫0π/2logcotθdθ=0.
Let I=∫0π/2logcotθdθ. Apply the King property ∫0af(x)dx=∫0af(a−x)dx with a=2π:
I=∫0π/2logcot(2π−θ)dθ=∫0π/2logtanθdθ.
Adding the two forms: …
- CBSE 2021Set I1 markMCQQ.∫0π/2cosθ+sinθcosθdθ=(a) π(b) 2π(c) 3π(d) 4π
›Reveal solutionSolution
∫0π/2cosθ+sinθcosθdθ=4π.
Let I=∫0π/2cosθ+sinθcosθdθ. Apply the King property θ→2π−θ, which swaps sin↔cos:
I=∫0π/2sinθ+cosθsinθdθ.
Add the two forms: …
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