Q.If a and b are distinct integers, prove that a−b is a factor of an−bn, whenever n is a positive integer. [Hint: write an=(a−b+b)n and expand]
Concept understanding — Proof By Induction
Proof by Induction: From Dominoes to Certainty
Imagine you have an infinite line of dominoes standing upright. You want to be absolutely sure that every single domino will fall. How would you prove it?
You'd need two things:
- The first domino falls — you push it.
- If any domino falls, the next one falls too — they are close enough to knock each other over.
That's it. If both conditions hold, you know — without checking each domino individually — that every domino will eventually fall. This is the core intuition behind proof by induction.
The Problem Induction Solves
Many mathematical statements involve natural numbers (1,2,3,…) and claim something is true for all of them. For example:
The sum of the first n odd numbers equals n2.
You could check: 1=12, 1+3=22, 1+3+5=32, 1+3+5+7=42... but you can never check infinitely many cases. Induction gives you a way to prove it in just two steps.
The Precise Structure
Let P(n) be a statement about a natural number n (like "the sum of the first n odd numbers is n2"). To prove P(n) is true for all n≥1, you need:
Principle of Mathematical Induction
[P(1) is true]and[P(k)⟹P(k+1) for all k≥1]⟹P(n) is true for all n≥1
The two parts have names:
- Base case: Prove P(1) is true. (The first domino falls.)
- Inductive step: Assume P(k) is true for some arbitrary k≥1, and prove P(k+1) follows. (If domino k falls, domino k+1 falls too.)
The assumption "P(k) is true" is called the inductive hypothesis.
A Worked Example
Let's prove: 1+3+5+⋯+(2n−1)=n2 for all n≥1.
Base case (n=1):
Left side: 1
Right side: 12=1
So P(1) is true.
Inductive step:
Assume P(k) is true for some k≥1:
1+3+5+⋯+(2k−1)=k2
We want to prove P(k+1):
1+3+5+⋯+(2k−1)+(2(k+1)−1)=(k+1)2
Start from the left side of P(k+1):
[1+3+⋯+(2k−1)]+(2k+1)
Replace the bracketed sum using the inductive hypothesis:
k2+(2k+1)
Simplify:
k2+2k+1=(k+1)2
That's exactly the right side of P(k+1). So P(k)⟹P(k+1) is proved.
Since both conditions hold, P(n) is true for all n≥1.
The inductive step does not assume P(k+1) is true — that would be circular. It assumes P(k) and deduces P(k+1).
Why It Works (The Logic)
Induction is a domino chain of implications:
- P(1) is true (base).
- P(1)⟹P(2) (inductive step with k=1), so P(2) is true.
- P(2)⟹P(3) (inductive step with k=2), so P(3) is true.
- P(3)⟹P(4), so P(4) is true.
- ... and so on, forever.
You never need to check infinitely many cases. The inductive step acts as a "machine" that, given any true P(k), produces P(k+1). The base case feeds the machine the first truth, and the machine keeps running forever.
A common mistake: proving the inductive step but forgetting the base case. Without the base case, the dominoes never start falling. For example, "all numbers are equal" can be "proved" by induction — but the base case fails, so the proof is invalid.
When to Use Induction
Induction works when:
- The statement is about natural numbers (or any well-ordered set).
- The statement for n+1 can be expressed in terms of the statement for n.
It's especially useful for:
- Summation formulas (like the example above)
- Divisibility proofs (e.g., "n3−n is divisible by 3")
- Inequalities (e.g., "2n>n2 for n≥5")
- Recursive definitions (e.g., Fibonacci numbers)
For inequalities, the base case might start at n=5 instead of n=1. That's fine — just adjust the base case to the smallest number where the statement holds, and prove the inductive step for all k from that number onward.
The Principle of Mathematical Induction is its own dedicated chapter in the NCERT Class 11 Mathematics syllabus, and "proof by induction steps and examples" is a frequently searched topic among students preparing for CBSE boards and competitive-exam logic-based questions. Since summation-formula proofs are a classic exam format, this concept regularly appears in "mathematical induction important questions" for JEE Main revision.
Concept: Proof by induction (with binomial expansion)
We prove that (a−b)∣(an−bn) for all positive integers n.
Base case (n=1): a1−b1=a−b, which is clearly divisible by (a−b).
Inductive step: Assume (a−b)∣(ak−bk) for some k≥1. We must show (a−b)∣(ak+1−bk+1).
Following the hint, write a=(a−b)+b. Then:
ak+1=a⋅ak=[(a−b)+b]⋅ak=(a−b)ak+b⋅ak
So:
ak+1−bk+1=(a−b)ak+b⋅ak−bk+1=(a−b)ak+b(ak−bk)
The first term (a−b)ak is divisible by (a−b). The second term b(ak−bk) is divisible by (a−b) by the inductive hypothesis. Therefore their sum is divisible by (a−b).
By induction, the result holds for all positive integers n.
(a−b) is a factor of (an−bn) for all positive integers n.
We prove by induction that an−bn is always divisible by a−b for any positive integer n, using the binomial expansion of (a−b+b)n to show the difference telescopes into a multiple of a−b.
The heart of this proof lies in recognizing that an−bn can be rewritten in a form that explicitly reveals a−b as a factor. The hint suggests writing a=(a−b)+b, which transforms an into a binomial expansion where every term except one contains the factor a−b.
Why does this work? When we expand (a−b+b)n using the binomial theorem, we get a sum of terms. Most of these terms will contain at least one factor of (a−b), and the only term without it is bn. When we subtract bn from both sides, everything that remains is divisible by a−b.
Let me show you the formal induction proof.
Base case: n=1
For n=1, we have a1−b1=a−b, which is trivially divisible by a−b (quotient is 1). The base case holds.
Inductive hypothesis
Assume that for some positive integer k, we have a−b∣ak−bk. This means we can write
ak−bk=(a−b)⋅Qk
for some integer Qk.
Inductive step
We need to prove that a−b∣ak+1−bk+1.
Following the hint, write a=(a−b)+b. Then:
ak+1=[(a−b)+b]k+1
Expanding by the binomial theorem:
ak+1=∑r=0k+1(rk+1)(a−b)rbk+1−r
=(0k+1)(a−b)0bk+1+(1k+1)(a−b)1bk+(2k+1)(a−b)2bk−1+⋯+(k+1k+1)(a−b)k+1
=bk+1+(1k+1)(a−b)bk+(2k+1)(a−b)2bk−1+⋯+(a−b)k+1
Notice that every term except the first contains at least one factor of (a−b). Therefore:
ak+1−bk+1=(1k+1)(a−b)bk+(2k+1)(a−b)2bk−1+⋯+(a−b)k+1
Factoring out (a−b):
ak+1−bk+1=(a−b)[(1k+1)bk+(2k+1)(a−b)bk−1+⋯+(a−b)k]
The expression in brackets is an integer (since it's a sum of products of integers), so a−b divides ak+1−bk+1.
By the principle of mathematical induction, a−b is a factor of an−bn for all positive integers n.
An alternative way to see this: an−bn=(a−b)(an−1+an−2b+an−3b2+⋯+abn−2+bn−1) is the standard factorization formula. The induction proof essentially reconstructs this identity.
We have shown by induction that a−b is a factor of an−bn for all positive integers n.
Showing the 12 most recent of 15 on this concept.
- AP EAPCET 2026Set eng-2026-05-14-FN1 markMCQQ.For n∈N, 12+22+32+⋯+n2> (A) n3 (B) 2n3 (C) 3n3 (D) 3n3
›Reveal solutionSolution
The sum of squares 12+22+⋯+n2 grows like 3n3, so for large n it exceeds 3n3 but is less than 2n3; the only option it is always greater than is 3n3, making (C) the correct choice.
The key idea is to compare the sum of squares to a simple cubic expression. We know the exact formula:
12+22+⋯+n2=6n(n+1)(2n+1).
But we don’t need the exact formula to reason about inequalities — we just need to know the leading term. The sum of k2 from k=1 to n behaves like 3n3 for large n, because the integral ∫0nx2dx=n3/3 approximates it. So the sum is roughly n3/3, and we can check which of the given options it is always greater than.
Let’s test each option step by step.
-
Option (A): n3
For n=1, the sum is 1, and n3=1, so the sum is not greater (it’s equal). For n=2, sum =1+4=5, n3=8, so 5<8. So the sum is not always greater than n3. Eliminate (A).
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Option (B): 2n3
For n=1, sum =1, n3/2=0.5, so 1>0.5 — okay. For n=2, sum =5, n3/2=4, so 5>4 — okay. For n=3, sum =14, n3/2=13.5, so 14>13.5 — still okay. But check n=4: sum =30, n3/2=32, so 30<32. So it fails for n=4. Eliminate (B).
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Option (C): 3n3
Test small n:
- n=1: sum =1, n3/3≈0.333, so 1>0.333.
- n=2: sum =5, n3/3≈2.667, so 5>2.667.
- n=3: sum =14, n3/3=9, so 14>9.
- n=4: sum =30, n3/3≈21.333, so 30>21.333. It seems always true. To be sure, use the exact formula:
6n(n+1)(2n+1)>3n3
Multiply both sides by 6:
n(n+1)(2n+1)>2n3
Expand left: n(2n2+3n+1)=2n3+3n2+n.
So inequality becomes 2n3+3n2+n>2n3, i.e., 3n2+n>0, which is true for all positive integers n. So (C) holds for all n∈N.
- Option (D): 3n3 For n=1, sum =1, 3n3=3, so 1<3. Fails immediately. Eliminate (D).
Watch outA common mistake is to think the sum of squares is “about” n3/3 and then pick the largest option it is less than. But the question asks for which it is greater than — so we need the smallest lower bound among the options that actually works.
TipYou can also reason by comparing the sum to an integral: ∫0nx2dx=n3/3 is a lower bound for the right-endpoint Riemann sum, which is exactly 12+22+⋯+n2. So the sum is always greater than n3/3, confirming (C) without algebra.
✓Final answerThe correct option is (C).
ANSWER: C
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- AP EAPCET 2026Set eng-2026-05-14-AN1 markMCQQ.The divisor of 36n+56n−1 ∀ n∈N is (A) 729 (B) 625 (C) 676 (D) 784
›Reveal solutionSolution
36n+56n−1 is a classic "(1+k)n expansion minus a linear correction" divisibility identity; direct evaluation at small n shows it's always a multiple of 784=282.
Concept and Intuition
Expressions of the form an+bn−1 (here a=729=36) are divisible by b2 precisely when b=a−1, because the binomial expansion (1+(a−1))n=1+n(a−1)+(2n)(a−1)2+… gives an−1−n(a−1)=(2n)(a−1)2+…, a multiple of (a−1)2. Here a−1=728, and 56=728/13 is NOT quite a−1, so it isn't automatically the textbook identity — the safest and most reliable path for an MCQ is to just directly test the divisor candidates against computed values of the expression, which pins down the true common divisor without needing the full expansion argument.
Step-by-Step Solution
- At n=1: 36+56(1)−1=729+56−1=784.
- At n=2: 312+56(2)−1=531441+112−1=531552. Check 531552/784=678 exactly (since 784×678=531552), so 784 divides this value too.
- At n=3: 318+56(3)−1=387420489+168−1=387420656. Check 387420656/784=494159 exactly, confirming 784 divides it again.
- Since 784 divides the expression at n=1,2,3 consistently, and the n=1 value is exactly 784, no larger number (like 729,625,676, none of which even divide 784) can be a universal divisor — so among the given options, 784 is the one that works for every n.
Common Mistakes
- Trying to force the identity into the standard "b=a−1" binomial-divisibility template without checking numerically — 56=728, so the naive pattern-match is misleading here; direct verification is safer.
- Picking 729=36 just because it visually resembles a term in the expression, without checking it actually divides the computed value.
✓Final answerThe correct option is (D) — 784.
ANSWER: D
- AP EAPCET 2026Set eng-2026-05-18-AN1 markMCQQ.∀n∈N, 12n(n+1)2(n+2)> (A) 12(n+2)4 (B) 12n4 (C) 2n4 (D) 3(2n+1)n
›Reveal solutionSolution
The inequality 12n(n+1)2(n+2)>12n4 holds for all natural numbers n, making option (B) the correct choice.
We are asked: for every natural number n, which of the four expressions is always less than the given left-hand side?
The key is to compare the growth rates and exact values of the expressions, not to solve an equation. Since the inequality must hold for all n∈N, we can test small values and also reason algebraically.
Concept & Intuition
The left-hand side is 12n(n+1)2(n+2). Notice that for large n, the leading term is 12n⋅n2⋅n=12n4. So the LHS behaves like 12n4 plus extra positive terms. That suggests the LHS is greater than 12n4 for all n. The other options either grow faster (like 12(n+2)4) or are much smaller (like 3(2n+1)n), so only one option is plausible.
Step-by-step reasoning
- Expand the LHS to see its leading term
n(n+1)2(n+2)=n(n2+2n+1)(n+2)
First multiply (n2+2n+1)(n+2)=n3+2n2+n+2n2+4n+2=n3+4n2+5n+2.
Then multiply by n:
n4+4n3+5n2+2n
So the LHS is 12n4+4n3+5n2+2n.
- Compare with option (B): 12n4 The difference is:
12n4+4n3+5n2+2n−12n4=124n3+5n2+2n
For any natural number n≥1, 4n3+5n2+2n>0, so the LHS is strictly greater than 12n4.
Hence option (B) is always true.
- Check option (A): 12(n+2)4 Expand (n+2)4=n4+8n3+24n2+32n+16. Compare with LHS numerator n4+4n3+5n2+2n: The difference (LHS minus option A) is:
12(n4+4n3+5n2+2n)−(n4+8n3+24n2+32n+16)=12−4n3−19n2−30n−16
This is negative for all n≥1, so LHS < option (A). Thus (A) is false.
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Check option (C): 2n4
Compare LHS 12n4+… with 2n4=126n4.
The difference is 12n4+4n3+5n2+2n−6n4=12−5n4+4n3+5n2+2n.
For n=1, this is 12−5+4+5+2=126>0, but for n=2: 12−80+32+20+4=12−24<0. So it fails for n≥2. Hence (C) is false.
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Check option (D): 3(2n+1)n
This is 32n2+n=128n2+4n.
Compare with LHS: for n=1, LHS = 121⋅4⋅3=1, option (D) = 33=1, so not strictly greater (inequality is strict). For n=2, LHS = 122⋅9⋅4=6, option (D) = 35⋅2≈3.33, so LHS > (D) here, but the condition fails at n=1 because we need strict inequality for all n. Hence (D) is false.
Watch outA common mistake is to forget that the inequality must hold for every natural number n, including n=1. Option (D) fails exactly at n=1, where equality occurs.
TipWhen comparing polynomials for all large n, focus on the highest-degree term. Here LHS and option (B) share the same leading coefficient 121n4, but LHS has extra positive lower-degree terms, so it's always larger.
✓Final answerThe correct option is (B).
ANSWER: B
- AP EAPCET 2025Set eng-2025-05-21-FN1 markMCQQ.For all n∈N, if 13+23+33+…+n3>x, then a value of x among the following is (A) 4n2 (B) n2 (C) n4 (D) 4n2(n+1)2
›Reveal solutionSolution
Using the closed form ∑k3=4n2(n+1)2, only x=4n2 is strictly less than this sum for every natural number n.
Concept and Intuition
The question asks which expression x can serve as a valid STRICT lower bound of the sum of cubes for every n. Since we know the sum exactly, this becomes an algebraic comparison: check, for each option, whether sum(n)−x(n)>0 for all n≥1 (not just for large n, and not merely ≥0).
Step-by-Step Solution
- Recall the identity: 13+23+⋯+n3=(2n(n+1))2=4n2(n+1)2.
- Option (D) 4n2(n+1)2: this equals the sum exactly, so "sum > this" is never true (equality, not strict inequality) — rejected.
- Option (B) n2: at n=1, sum =1 and n2=1; sum is NOT >n2 here (equality) — rejected as a universal strict bound.
- Option (C) n4: compare 4n2(n+1)2 to n4. Their difference is 4n2(n+1)2−4n4=4n2[(n+1)2−4n2]=4n2(1−n)(3n+1), which is negative for n≥2 (since 1−n<0 there) — so sum <n4 for n≥2; rejected.
- Option (A) 4n2: difference is 4n2(n+1)2−4n2=4n2[(n+1)2−1]=4n2(n2+2n)=4n3(n+2), which is strictly positive for every n≥1. So sum >4n2 holds for all n∈N.
- Hence (A) is the value of x that works for every n.
Common Mistakes
- Picking the exact closed form (D) thinking "the sum equals this, so obviously true" — the question demands STRICT inequality (>), and the sum never exceeds its own exact value.
- Only checking large n for option (B) and missing that it fails at the boundary case n=1; competitive exam "for all n" claims must be checked at small n too.
✓Final answerThe correct option is (A) — 4n2.
ANSWER: A
- AP EAPCET 2025Set eng-2025-05-22-FN1 markMCQQ.For all n∈N, 23n−1≥ (A) n2(2n/2) (B) n2(32n−1) (C) n3(32n−1) (D) n(32n−1)
›Reveal solutionSolution
A "which bound is valid" induction-style inequality question — resolved by direct numeric testing across the four candidates, since the exponential-vs-polynomial growth rates make the true bound obvious once you compare a few terms.
Concept and Intuition
When four polynomial-times-exponential expressions are offered as lower bounds for 23n−1, the fastest reliable method is to plug in small n and eliminate any candidate that ever exceeds the left side — because a true lower bound must hold for every n∈N, a single violation kills a candidate.
Step-by-Step Solution
- At n=1: LHS =23−1=1. Candidate (A) =12⋅21/2≈1.414>1 — fails already, (A) eliminated.
- At n=2: LHS =29−1=4. Candidate (B) =22⋅30.5≈6.93>4 — fails, (B) eliminated. Candidate (C) =23⋅30.5≈13.86>4 — fails, (C) eliminated.
- Candidate (D) at n=2: 2⋅30.5≈3.46≤4 — holds.
- Check (D) further: n=3, LHS =13, (D) =3⋅31=9≤13 ✓. n=4, LHS =40, (D) =4⋅31.5≈20.8≤40 ✓. n=5, LHS=121, (D)=5⋅32=45≤121 ✓.
- Since LHS grows like 3n/2 while (D) grows like n⋅3n/2/3, the ratio LHS/(D) grows like 3n/2/n→∞ — the inequality only gets safer for larger n, so it holds for all n∈N.
Common Mistakes
- Assuming the "biggest-looking" expression (with n3 or n2) must be the correct tight lower bound — polynomial growth is irrelevant next to the exponential 3n/2 factor, so a smaller-looking expression with the same exponential term can be the one that actually stays below.
- Not checking small n first, and instead trying to prove all four by full induction — testing n=1,2 eliminates 3 of 4 candidates immediately.
✓Final answerThe correct option is (D) — n(32n−1).
ANSWER: D
- AP EAPCET 2025Set eng-2025-05-24-FN1 markMCQQ.For all n∈N, if n(n2+3) is divisible by k, then the maximum value of k is (A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) 2
›Reveal solutionSolution
This tests finding the largest k that divides n(n2+3) for every natural number n — you need the GCD across all n, not just one case.
Concept and Intuition
The question asks for the greatest common divisor of n3+3n as n ranges over all naturals. A common trap is to test only one or two values and conclude a bigger number like 4 or 6 works — but "divisible by k for all n" requires k to divide every instance, so a single counterexample kills a candidate.
Step-by-Step Solution
- Compute n(n2+3) for the first several naturals:
- n=1: 1(1+3)=4
- n=2: 2(4+3)=14
- n=3: 3(9+3)=36
- n=4: 4(16+3)=76
- n=5: 5(25+3)=140
- n=6: 6(36+3)=234
- Any valid k must divide all of these. gcd(4,14)=2. Check the rest: 36/2=18, 76/2=38, 140/2=70, 234/2=117 — all divide evenly by 2.
- Test whether 4 works: 14/4=3.5, not an integer, so k=4 fails.
- Test whether 3 (hence 6) works: 4/3 is not an integer, so 3∤n(n2+3) for n=1; 6 and 8 are ruled out too.
- Since 2 divides every computed value and no larger option survives, the maximum k is 2.
Common Mistakes
- Testing only one value of n (like n=1 giving 4) and picking k=4 without checking other n.
- Assuming n(n−1)(n+1) (divisible by 6) transfers its divisibility to n3+3n=n(n−1)(n+1)+4n — the +4n term breaks that.
✓Final answerThe correct option is (D) — 2.
ANSWER: D
- Compute n(n2+3) for the first several naturals:
- AP EAPCET 2025Set eng-2025-05-27-FN1 markMCQQ.The remainder obtained when (2m+1)2n (m,n∈N) is divided by 8 is (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
›Reveal solutionSolution
The square of any odd integer is always 1 more than a multiple of 8 — a standard number-theory fact. Raising that to any further power n keeps the remainder at 1. Answer: remainder 1.
Concept and Intuition
2m+1 is the general form of an odd integer. A key fact in elementary number theory: the square of any odd integer, divided by 8, always leaves remainder 1. This is because consecutive odd numbers can be paired as (2m+1) and (2m+1)2=4m2+4m+1=4m(m+1)+1, and m(m+1) is always a product of two consecutive integers, hence always even — so 4m(m+1) is always a multiple of 8.
Step-by-Step Solution
- Expand (2m+1)2=4m2+4m+1=4m(m+1)+1.
- m(m+1) is a product of two consecutive integers, so one of them is always even ⇒ m(m+1)=2k for some integer k.
- So (2m+1)2=4(2k)+1=8k+1, i.e. (2m+1)2≡1(mod8).
- Now (2m+1)2n=[(2m+1)2]n≡1n=1(mod8) for every natural number n.
- So the remainder when (2m+1)2n is divided by 8 is always 1, independent of the specific values of m and n.
Common Mistakes
- Trying to directly expand (2m+1)2n via the binomial theorem term-by-term instead of first simplifying the square — much more error-prone.
- Forgetting that m(m+1) (product of consecutive integers) is always even, which is the crux of the divisibility-by-8 argument.
✓Final answerThe correct option is (A) — 1.
ANSWER: A
- AP EAPCET 2024Set eng-2024-05-18-FN1 markMCQQ.For all positive integers 'n' if 3(52n+1)+23n+1 is divisible by k, then the number of prime numbers less than or equal to k is (A) 17 (B) 6 (C) 7 (D) 8
›Reveal solutionSolution
This tests a modular-arithmetic divisibility identity (3⋅52n+1+23n+1 is always divisible by 17), followed by counting primes up to that value k=17, giving 7 primes.
Concept and Intuition
Many 'always divisible by k' problems can be cracked cleanly by writing the expression in a form where a common factor emerges directly, rather than relying on induction. Here, expressing 52n+1=5⋅(52)n=5⋅25n and 23n+1=2⋅(23)n=2⋅8n, and noting that 25≡8(mod17), lets both terms collapse to multiples of the same power 8n, revealing the factor of 17 explicitly.
Step-by-Step Solution
- Rewrite the expression: 3⋅52n+1+23n+1=3⋅5⋅(52)n+2⋅(23)n=15⋅25n+2⋅8n.
- Note 25=17+8, so modulo 17, 25≡8. Hence 25n≡8n(mod17).
- Substitute: 15⋅25n+2⋅8n≡15⋅8n+2⋅8n=17⋅8n≡0(mod17).
- So for every positive integer n, the expression is divisible by 17. (Quick check at n=1: 3⋅53+24=375+16=391=17×23 ✓.)
- So k=17. Now list all primes ≤17: 2,3,5,7,11,13,17 — counting these gives 7 primes.
Common Mistakes
- Trying to prove divisibility by induction and making an algebraic slip in the inductive step, when the direct modular substitution above is cleaner and less error-prone.
- Miscounting the primes up to 17 (forgetting to include 17 itself, since it is prime, or accidentally including a composite number like 9 or 15).
✓Final answerThe correct option is (C) — 7.
ANSWER: C
- AP EAPCET 2024Set eng-2024-05-20-AN1 markMCQQ.If 2⋅42n+1+33n+1 is divisible by k for all n∈N, then k= (A) 209 (B) 11 (C) 8 (D) 3
›Reveal solutionSolution
Rewriting the expression as 8⋅16n+3⋅27n and reducing mod 11 (where 16≡27≡5) shows it always equals 11⋅5n, hence always divisible by 11.
Concept and Intuition
To find a universal divisor of an expression depending on n, it helps to reduce each power modulo the candidate k and see if the combination collapses to a multiple of k for every n — this both proves the divisibility (algebraically, not just by testing values) and identifies exactly which k works.
Step-by-Step Solution
- Rewrite: 2⋅42n+1=2⋅4⋅42n=8⋅(42)n=8⋅16n, and 33n+1=3⋅(33)n=3⋅27n.
- So the expression is 8⋅16n+3⋅27n.
- Modulo 11: 16=11+5≡5, and 27=22+5≡5. So 8⋅16n+3⋅27n≡8⋅5n+3⋅5n=11⋅5n≡0(mod11) for all n.
- This holds for every natural number n, so 11 always divides the expression. (Testing n=1 gives 209=11×19; n=2 gives 4235=11×385 — consistent, and 11 is the only option among the choices that is a genuine common factor for every n, since e.g. 209 fails at n=2.)
Common Mistakes
- Taking k=209 (the value at n=1) as the universal divisor without checking it against other values of n — 209 does not divide the n=2 case.
✓Final answerThe correct option is (B) — 11.
ANSWER: B
- AP EAPCET 2024Set eng-2024-05-22-AN1 markMCQQ.If P is the greatest divisor of 49n+16n−1 for all n∈N, then the number of factors of P is (A) 12 (B) 15 (C) 7 (D) 13
›Reveal solutionSolution
Binomial-expand 49n=(48+1)n to show 64 always divides the expression, and the n=1 case shows 64 is exactly the greatest such divisor; 64=26 has 7 factors.
Concept and Intuition
To find the greatest number dividing an expression for every natural number n, a standard trick is to rewrite the base as (a multiple of some number) +1, so the binomial expansion isolates that number as a common factor of every non-constant term. Here writing 49=48+1 lets every term except the constant carry a factor of 48 (or a higher power of 48), which combines nicely with the linear 16n term.
Step-by-Step Solution
- Write 49n=(48+1)n=∑k=0n(kn)48k=1+48n+(2n)482+(3n)483+⋯
- So 49n+16n−1=(1+48n+(2n)482+⋯)+16n−1=64n+(2n)482+(3n)483+⋯
- Note 482=2304=64×36, so 482 (and every higher power of 48) is itself divisible by 64. Hence every term in the sum (64n and all the 48k terms for k≥2) is divisible by 64.
- So 64 divides 49n+16n−1 for every n∈N — 64 is a common divisor.
- Check it's the greatest: at n=1, 491+16(1)−1=49+16−1=64 exactly. Since the expression itself equals 64 for this n, no divisor greater than 64 could possibly divide it for all n (it must divide 64 itself). So P=64.
- 64=26. Number of positive divisors =6+1=7.
Common Mistakes
- Stopping after showing 64 divides the expression for a couple of small n and assuming that's automatically the greatest common divisor without checking that some n actually achieves exactly that value.
- Miscounting divisors of 26 — remember the divisor count formula is (exponent + 1), i.e. 7, not 6.
✓Final answerThe correct option is (C) — 7.
ANSWER: C
- AP EAPCET 2021Set eng-2021-08-20-AN1 markMCQQ.Using mathematical induction, the numbers an's are defined by a0=1,an+1=3n2+n+an (n≥0), then an= (A) n3+n2+1 (B) n3−n2+1 (C) n3−n2 (D) n3+n2
›Reveal solutionSolution
Generate the first few terms from the recurrence and match them against the candidate closed
forms; an=n3−n2+1 fits every computed term.
Concept and Intuition
When a recurrence defines a sequence and the answer choices are closed forms, the fastest rigorous
check is to compute several terms directly from the recurrence and test each candidate — the
correct formula must match every computed value, not just one.
Step-by-Step Solution
- a0=1 (given).
- a1=a0+1=3(0)2+0+a0=0+0+1=1.
- a2=a1+1=3(1)2+1+a1=3+1+1=5.
- a3=a2+1=3(2)2+2+a2=12+2+5=19.
- Test an=n3−n2+1: at n=0: 0−0+1=1 ✓; at n=1: 1−1+1=1 ✓; at n=2: 8−4+1=5 ✓; at n=3: 27−9+1=19 ✓. All four match.
- (For completeness, this can be proved by induction: assuming an=n3−n2+1, an+1=3n2+n+n3−n2+1=n3+2n2+n+1, and indeed (n+1)3−(n+1)2+1=n3+3n2+3n+1−n2−2n−1+1=n3+2n2+n+1 — matches.)
Common Mistakes
- Testing the candidate formula against only a0 or a1 and stopping early, which several wrong options would also satisfy.
✓Final answerThe correct option is (B) — n3−n2+1.
ANSWER: B
- AP EAPCET 2021Set eng-2021-08-23-AN1 markMCQQ.If 'n' is a positive integer, then 2⋅42n+1+33n+1 is divisible by (A) 2 (B) 9 (C) 11 (D) 27
›Reveal solutionSolution
Checking small cases (and confirming via modular arithmetic) shows 2⋅42n+1+33n+1 is always divisible by 11.
Concept and Intuition
For "which number always divides this expression" questions, it's efficient to (a) test small values of n to screen out wrong options, and (b) confirm the surviving candidate using modular arithmetic (showing the expression is ≡0 modulo that number for all n).
Step-by-Step Solution
- Test n=1: 2⋅42(1)+1+33(1)+1=2⋅43+34=2(64)+81=128+81=209. Factor: 209=11×19. So 209 is divisible by 11, but 209 is odd (not divisible by 2), and 209/9≈23.2, 209/27≈7.7 (not divisible by 9 or 27).
- This already eliminates options (A) 2, (B) 9, (D) 27, leaving (C) 11 as the only surviving candidate.
- Confirm with n=2: 2⋅45+37=2(1024)+2187=2048+2187=4235=11×385 — again exactly divisible by 11.
- This pattern can be proven in general using modular arithmetic (42n+1=4⋅16n≡4⋅5n(mod11) and 33n+1=3⋅27n≡3⋅5n(mod11), so the sum 2(4⋅5n)+3⋅5n=(8+3)5n=11⋅5n≡0(mod11) for every n), confirming divisibility by 11 always holds.
Common Mistakes
- Testing only n=1 and assuming any divisor of 209 (like checking 19, which isn't even an option) is "the" answer without matching against the given options.
- Trying to prove divisibility by induction without first screening candidates using a concrete numeric case — much faster to test first.
✓Final answerThe correct option is (C) — 11.
ANSWER: C
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