Q.If nC9=nC8, find nC17.
Concept understanding — Combinations Symmetry Property
The Intuition: Two Ways to Choose
Imagine you have a group of 10 friends, and you need to pick 3 of them to form a committee. One way to think about this is: you are choosing the 3 people who will be on the committee. But there is another, equally valid way to think about it: you are rejecting the 7 people who will not be on the committee.
Choosing 3 to include is the same decision as choosing 7 to exclude. Every time you pick a set of 3, you automatically determine the set of 7 who are left out. There is a perfect one-to-one match between the two choices.
This is the heart of the symmetry property: the number of ways to choose k items from n is exactly the same as the number of ways to choose n−k items from n.
The Precise Statement
(kn)=(n−kn)
Where (kn) (read "n choose k") is the number of combinations — the number of distinct subsets of size k you can pick from a set of n distinct objects.
This holds for any non-negative integers n and k where 0≤k≤n.
Why It Works (The Algebraic Proof)
The formula for combinations is:
(kn)=k!(n−k)!n!
Now compute (n−kn):
(n−kn)=(n−k)!(n−(n−k))!n!=(n−k)!k!n!
The denominator is just k!(n−k)! written in a different order. Since multiplication is commutative, the two expressions are identical.
The symmetry is purely algebraic, but the intuition is what makes it memorable: choosing k to keep is the same as choosing n−k to discard.
Special Cases That Make Sense
-
k=0: (0n)=1 (there is exactly one way to choose nothing). By symmetry, (nn)=1 (one way to choose everything). Both make sense — you either take nothing or take all.
-
k=1: (1n)=n. Symmetry gives (n−1n)=n. Choosing 1 person to include is the same as choosing n−1 people to exclude — there are n choices in either case.
-
k=n/2 (when n is even): Here k=n−k, so the symmetry says (n/2n)=(n/2n). It is trivially true, but it tells you that the middle binomial coefficient is the largest one — the symmetry is about a central peak.
A Common Mistake to Avoid
Do not confuse this with the symmetry of permutations. For permutations, P(n,k)=(n−k)!n! and P(n,n−k) are not equal. The symmetry property is unique to combinations because order does not matter.
Quick Check
If (512)=792, what is (712)?
Answer: (712)=792, because 7=12−5.
No calculation needed — just the symmetry property.
The Combinations Symmetry Property is a standard result taught alongside the NCERT Class 11 Permutations and Combinations chapter, and it frequently appears in "combinations formula and properties" or "nCr = nC(n-r) proof" searches by CBSE and JEE aspirants. Recognising this identity quickly is a common time-saving trick tested in Class 11/12 mathematics important questions and competitive exam MCQs.
The key idea is the symmetry property of combinations:
nCr=nCn−r.
Given nC9=nC8, we can apply the property:
- By symmetry, nC9=nCn−9 and nC8=nCn−8.
- Since the two are equal, either 9=8 (impossible) or 9=n−8 (the complementary pair match).
- Solving 9=n−8 gives n=17.
Now find nC17=17C17. By definition, 17C17=1.
The value is 1.
By the symmetry nCa=nCb with a=b⇒a+b=n, the equality gives n=9+8=17, so nC17=17C17=1.
1. Use the combination identity. If nCa=nCb then either a=b or a+b=n.
2. Apply it here. Since 9=8, the second case must hold:
9+8=n⇒n=17
3. Evaluate the required combination.
nC17=17C17=1
because there is exactly one way to choose all 17 objects from 17.
nC17=1.
Showing the 12 most recent of 25 on this concept.
- AP EAPCET 2026Set eng-2026-05-13-FN1 markMCQQ.A student is allowed to select atmost 'n' books from a collection of 2n+1 books. If the total number of ways in which he can select atleast one book is 255, then the value of 'n' is (A) 6 (B) 5 (C) 4 (D) 3
›Reveal solutionSolution
∑r=1n(r2n+1)=22n−1=255⇒22n=256⇒n=4.
The number of ways to choose at least one and at most n books from 2n+1 books is
N=(12n+1)+(22n+1)+⋯+(n2n+1).
Use the symmetry (r2n+1)=(2n+1−r2n+1). The full sum of all coefficients is
∑r=02n+1(r2n+1)=22n+1,
and it splits into two equal halves (r=0…n and r=n+1…2n+1), so
∑r=0n(r2n+1)=21⋅22n+1=22n.
Removing the r=0 term ((02n+1)=1):
N=22n−1.
Set equal to 255:
22n−1=255⟹22n=256=28⟹2n=8⟹n=4.
✓Final answern=4 — option (C).
- AP EAPCET 2026Set eng-2026-05-14-AN1 markMCQQ.In a binomial distribution P(X=2)÷P(X=23)=(32)21, then mean of binomial distribution is (A) 10 (B) 15 (C) 20 (D) 25
›Reveal solutionSolution
A binomial ratio P(X=2)/P(X=23)=(2/3)21 pins down both n and p; the mean is np=15.
Concept and Intuition
For X∼B(n,p), P(X=r)=(rn)prqn−r with q=1−p. Comparing two probabilities at different r values gives a ratio involving both the binomial coefficients and a power of q/p. When the given ratio is a pure power of a single fraction (here (2/3)21 with no leftover coefficient), the intended reading is that the combinatorial factor cancels out, i.e. (2n)=(23n).
Step-by-Step Solution
- Write P(X=23)P(X=2)=(23n)p23qn−23(2n)p2qn−2=(23n)(2n)(pq)21.
- Since the right side of the given equation is exactly (32)21 with no extra combinatorial factor, we need (2n)=(23n).
- Using (rn)=(n−rn), this holds when n−2=23, i.e. n=25.
- Then (pq)21=(32)21⇒pq=32.
- With p+q=1: p=23q, so 23q+q=1⇒25q=1⇒q=52, p=53.
- Mean =np=25×53=15.
Common Mistakes
- Forgetting that (2n)=(23n) requires n=25, not n=21 or some other guess.
- Mixing up which of p,q corresponds to which side of the ratio q/p.
✓Final answerThe correct option is (B) — 15.
ANSWER: B
- AP EAPCET 2026Set eng-2026-05-15-FN1 markMCQQ.All the solutions (n,r) of the equation (n+1)CrnCr=31 can be obtained from one of the following equations given in the options for k=1,2,3,…. Choose the correct option. (A) (3k+1)C2k(3k)C2k=31 (B) (3k)C2k(3k−1)C2k=31 (C) (4k+1)C2k(4k)C2k=31 (D) (4k)C2k(4k−1)C2k=31
›Reveal solutionSolution
Simplifying the ratio of consecutive binomial coefficients reduces the equation to a simple linear relation between n,r; parametrizing by k reproduces option (B) exactly.
Concept and Intuition
Ratios of binomial coefficients with the same lower index but consecutive upper indices simplify very cleanly, since most of the factorial terms cancel — this converts what looks like a combinatorial equation into ordinary algebra in n,r.
Step-by-Step Solution
- (n+1)CrnCr=(n+1)!/(r!(n+1−r)!)n!/(r!(n−r)!)=(n−r)!(n+1)!n!(n+1−r)!=n+1n+1−r.
- Set this equal to 31: 3(n+1−r)=n+1⇒3n+3−3r=n+1⇒2n+2=3r⇒r=32(n+1).
- For r to be an integer, n+1 must be divisible by 3. Write n+1=3k, i.e. n=3k−1, giving r=2k.
- Substituting back: the family of solutions is exactly (n,r)=(3k−1,2k) for k=1,2,3,…, i.e. (3k)C2k(3k−1)C2k=31.
- Quick check with k=1: n=2,r=2: 3C22C2=31 ✓. With k=2: n=5,r=4: 6C45C4=155=31 ✓.
Common Mistakes
- Misassigning which of n,n+1 pairs with 3k vs 3k−1 — always verify with a small value of k as a sanity check (as done above).
- Forgetting the divisibility condition on n+1, which is what generates the parametrized family in the first place.
✓Final answerThe correct option is (B) — (3k)C2k(3k−1)C2k=31.
ANSWER: B
- AP EAPCET 2026Set eng-2026-05-18-AN1 markMCQQ.If a and b are the greatest values of 2nCr and (2n−1)Cr respectively, then (A) a=2b (B) b=2a (C) a=b (D) a2=2b2
›Reveal solutionSolution
This tests where binomial coefficients are maximised for even vs. odd upper index, and the Pascal's-triangle identity linking them. Answer: a=2b.
Concept and Intuition
For a fixed upper index N, the binomial coefficients NCr are largest at the middle. If N is even (N=2n), there is a single largest coefficient at r=n. If N is odd (N=2n−1), the two middle values r=n−1 and r=n are tied for the largest (since (2n−1)−(n−1)=n, symmetry gives 2n−1Cn−1=2n−1Cn).
Step-by-Step Solution
- Greatest value of 2nCr: this is a=2nCn.
- Greatest value of (2n−1)Cr: this is b=2n−1Cn (equal to 2n−1Cn−1).
- Pascal's rule: 2nCn=2n−1Cn−1+2n−1Cn.
- Since 2n−1Cn−1=2n−1Cn=b, we get a=b+b=2b.
Common Mistakes
- Picking r=n for the odd case too, forgetting the symmetric tie at r=n−1 and r=n.
- Missing that Pascal's identity directly links the even-N middle term to the two odd-N middle terms.
✓Final answerThe correct option is (A) — a=2b.
ANSWER: A
- AP EAPCET 2025Set eng-2025-05-21-AN1 markMCQQ.If (qp)=pCq and i=0∑m(i10)(m−i20) is maximum, then m= (A) 10 (B) 12 (C) 15 (D) 20
›Reveal solutionSolution
This tests recognizing a Vandermonde convolution and then using the standard fact that binomial coefficients (rn) are maximized at the central term. Answer: m=15.
Concept and Intuition
A sum of the form ∑i(ip)(m−iq) is exactly the coefficient of xm in the product (1+x)p(1+x)q=(1+x)p+q — this is Vandermonde's identity. Once the sum collapses to a single binomial coefficient (mp+q), the question of "for which m is it maximum" becomes the standard fact that (rn) is largest when r is as close as possible to n/2 (exactly n/2 when n is even).
Step-by-Step Solution
- Recognize i=0∑m(i10)(m−i20) as the coefficient of xm in (1+x)10⋅(1+x)20=(1+x)30.
- That coefficient is simply (m30).
- The sequence (030),(130),…,(3030) increases up to the middle and decreases after, with a unique maximum at m=30/2=15 (since 30 is even).
- So the sum is maximum at m=15.
Common Mistakes
- Trying to maximize the sum by differentiating or trial-and-error instead of recognizing the Vandermonde simplification first.
- Forgetting that for an even upper index n, the maximum of (rn) is at the single point r=n/2, not split across two values (that only happens when n is odd).
✓Final answerThe correct option is (C) — 15.
ANSWER: C
- AP EAPCET 2025Set eng-2025-05-26-AN1 markMCQQ.Let S1=j=1∑10j(j−1)⋅10Cj, S2=j=1∑10j⋅10Cj and S3=j=1∑10j2⋅10Cj. Assertion (A): S3=55×29. Reason (R): S1=90×28 and S2=10×28. (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and R is the correct explanation of (A) (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
›Reveal solutionSolution
Both S1 and S2 have standard closed forms; checking them against R shows R's S1 claim is correct but its S2 claim is wrong (it should be 10×29, not 10×28), making R false overall — while the Assertion, built from the correct values, checks out.
Concept and Intuition
The sums ∑j(jn) and ∑j(j−1)(jn) come from differentiating (1+x)n once and twice respectively and then setting x=1: ∑j(jn)=n2n−1 and ∑j(j−1)(jn)=n(n−1)2n−2. Since j2=j(j−1)+j, the sum of j2(jn) is just the sum of these two known results — no need to compute anything from scratch once these standard identities are recalled.
Step-by-Step Solution
- S2=∑j=110j(j10)=10⋅29=10×512=5120.
- S1=∑j=110j(j−1)(j10)=10⋅9⋅28=90×256=23040=90×28.
- Reason (R) claims S1=90×28 (matches, true) and S2=10×28=2560 (does not match the correct 5120). Since R asserts both as a package and one part is numerically wrong, R is false.
- S3=∑j2(j10)=S1+S2=23040+5120=28160.
- Assertion (A) claims S3=55×29=55×512=28160 — this matches exactly, so (A) is true.
- Since (A) is true and (R) is false, the correct choice is (C).
Common Mistakes
- Misremembering ∑j(jn)=n2n−1 as n2n−2 (an off-by-one power-of-2 error) — exactly the trap R sets.
- Assuming an Assertion-Reason question's Reason is automatically true just because part of it matches known identities; each numeric claim in R must be checked independently.
✓Final answerThe correct option is (C) — (A) is true, but (R) is false.
ANSWER: C
- AP EAPCET 2024Set eng-2024-05-20-FN1 markMCQQ.If an=r=0∑nnCr1 then r=0∑nnCrr= (A) (n−1)a0 (B) n.an (C) 2n.an (D) an+1
›Reveal solutionSolution
Reflecting the sum r→n−r and using the symmetry (n−rn)=(rn) shows S=2nan directly, without evaluating either sum in closed form.
Concept and Intuition
Sums involving (rn) in the denominator, summed over all r=0 to n, are prime candidates for the "reflect r→n−r" trick, since (rn) is symmetric under this substitution — this often relates the sum of r-weighted terms directly back to the unweighted sum an.
Step-by-Step Solution
- Define S=r=0∑n(rn)r — this is exactly the sum we want to find.
- Substitute r→n−r in the summation index (valid since the sum runs over the full symmetric range 0 to n):
S=∑r=0n(n−rn)n−r=∑r=0n(rn)n−r
(using (n−rn)=(rn)).
3. Split the sum: S=r=0∑n(rn)n−r=0∑n(rn)r=nan−S (since the first sum is n times an=∑1/(rn), and the second sum is S itself, by definition).
4. So S=nan−S⇒2S=nan⇒S=2nan.
Common Mistakes
- Trying to compute an and the target sum separately in closed form (there isn't a simple closed form for an itself) instead of using the symmetry trick that avoids needing one.
- Errors in the reflection substitution, e.g. forgetting (n−rn)=(rn).
✓Final answerThe correct option is (C) — 2n⋅an.
ANSWER: C
- AP EAPCET 2024Set eng-2024-05-21-AN1 markMCQQ.If the ratio of the terms equidistant from the middle term in the expansion of (1+x)12 is 2561 (x∈N) then sum of all the terms of the expansion (1+x)12 is (A) 412 or 612 (B) 312 or 512 (C) 612 or 712 (D) 1212
›Reveal solutionSolution
The key idea is to use the symmetry property of binomial coefficients: terms equidistant from the middle are equal. Setting their ratio to 1/256 leads to an equation in x, which gives two possible values for x. Substituting these into (1+x)^12 yields the sum of all terms, matching option (B).
We are given the expansion of (1+x)12. The middle term is the 7th term (since 12 is even, there is one middle term). Terms equidistant from the middle are symmetric in the sense that their binomial coefficients are equal. For example, the term r places before the middle and the term r places after the middle have coefficients (6−r12) and (6+r12) respectively. But here the ratio of such terms is given as 2561, and x is a natural number. We need to find the sum of all terms, which is (1+x)12.
Why the symmetry property helps:
In any binomial expansion (1+x)n, the coefficients are symmetric: (kn)=(n−kn). For terms equidistant from the middle, the powers of x differ, so their ratio involves both coefficients and powers of x. Setting that ratio equal to 2561 gives an equation that determines x.
Let’s work through it step by step.
- Identify the general term and the middle term. The general term in (1+x)12 is Tk+1=(k12)xk. Since n=12 is even, the middle term is when k=6:
T7=(612)x6.
- Consider two terms equidistant from the middle. Let the term p places before the middle be T7−p and the term p places after the middle be T7+p. Their expressions are:
T7−p=(6−p12)x6−p,T7+p=(6+p12)x6+p.
- Form the ratio of these terms. The problem states the ratio of the terms equidistant from the middle is 2561. It does not specify which term is numerator, but since x is natural, the term with smaller power of x is smaller if x>1. The ratio given is less than 1, so likely the term before the middle (smaller power) over the term after the middle (larger power) equals 2561.
T7+pT7−p=(6+p12)x6+p(6−p12)x6−p=(6+p12)(6−p12)⋅x2p1.
- Use symmetry of binomial coefficients. Since (6−p12)=(12−(6−p)12)=(6+p12), the coefficients cancel exactly:
(6+p12)(6−p12)=1.
So the ratio simplifies to:
x2p1=2561.
Hence x2p=256.
-
Determine possible values of p and x.
Since x is a natural number and p is a positive integer (distance from the middle), we have x2p=256=28.
- If p=1, then x2=256 → x=16 (since x∈N).
- If p=2, then x4=256 → x=4.
- If p=3, then x6=256 → x is not an integer (since 2561/6 is not integer).
- If p=4, then x8=256 → x=2.
- For larger p, x would be 1 or fractional, but x=1 gives 12p=1=256. So possible (p,x) pairs: (1,16), (2,4), (4,2).
-
Find the sum of all terms for each valid x.
The sum of all terms in (1+x)12 is simply (1+x)12.
- For x=16: (1+16)12=1712.
- For x=4: (1+4)12=512.
- For x=2: (1+2)12=312.
-
Match with the options.
The sums we got are 312, 512, and 1712. Among the options:
(A) 412 or 612 — no match.
(B) 312 or 512 — matches.
(C) 612 or 712 — no match.
(D) 1212 — no match.
Watch outA common mistake is to forget that the ratio is for any pair equidistant from the middle, not just the pair immediately adjacent. That’s why we got multiple possible x values. Also, note that the ratio 2561 forces the coefficients to cancel, so the problem is simpler than it first appears.
TipThe symmetry property (kn)=(n−kn) is the hero here — it makes the ratio independent of which pair you pick, leaving only the powers of x to determine the result.
✓Final answerThe correct option is (B).
ANSWER: B
- AP EAPCET 2024Set eng-2024-05-22-AN1 markMCQQ.If the coefficients of (2r+6)th and (r−1)th terms in the expansion of (1+x)21 are equal, then the value of r= (A) 7 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 8
›Reveal solutionSolution
This tests the "equal binomial coefficients" symmetry (pn)=(qn)⟺p+q=n (or p=q); it gives r=6.
Concept and Intuition
When two binomial coefficients from the same row (⋅n) are equal, either the lower indices are identical, or they are "complementary" and sum to n (since (pn)=(n−pn)). Here the indices coming from term positions (2r+6) and (r−1) can't sensibly be forced equal (that gives a negative r), so the complementary case is the one that applies.
Step-by-Step Solution
- The (2r+6)-th term of (1+x)21 has coefficient (2r+6−121)=(2r+521).
- The (r−1)-th term has coefficient (r−1−121)=(r−221).
- Setting these equal and using (p21)=(q21)⟺p+q=21 (the non-trivial case): (2r+5)+(r−2)=21.
- 3r+3=21⇒3r=18⇒r=6.
- Check: 2r+5=17 and r−2=4; indeed 17+4=21 and (1721)=(421) — consistent.
Common Mistakes
- Off-by-one error in converting "k-th term" to its binomial index (it's (k−1n), not (kn)).
- Trying the "equal indices" case (2r+5=r−2) which gives an invalid negative r, instead of the complementary-sum case.
✓Final answerThe correct option is (C) — 6.
ANSWER: C
- AP EAPCET 2023Set eng-2023-05-15-AN1 markMCQQ.If Cj=nCj, then C0Cr+C1Cr+1+C2Cr+2+…+Cn−rCn= (A) (n−2r)!(n+2r)!(2n)! (B) (n−r)!(n+r)!(2n)! (C) 2nCr (D) 2nCr+1
›Reveal solutionSolution
This sum is a direct application of Vandermonde's convolution identity, giving (n−r2n)=(n−r)!(n+r)!(2n)!. Answer: (B).
Concept and Intuition
Vandermonde's identity: ∑k(km)(p−kn)=(pm+n). Recognizing a sum of products of binomial coefficients as this convolution (after using (kn)=(n−kn)) collapses it to one binomial coefficient.
Step-by-Step Solution
- We want S=∑k=0n−rCkCk+r where Cj=(jn).
- Use (k+rn)=(n−k−rn).
- So S=∑k(kn)(n−k−rn), the Vandermonde convolution with p=n−r.
- By Vandermonde's identity, S=(n−r2n).
- Write out: (n−r2n)=(n−r)!(n+r)!(2n)!.
Common Mistakes
- Misapplying the symmetry substitution.
- Confusing this with the simpler r=0 special case ∑(kn)2=(n2n).
✓Final answerThe correct option is (B) — (n−r)!(n+r)!(2n)!.
ANSWER: B
- AP EAPCET 2023Set eng-2023-05-16-FN1 markMCQQ.The least value of n such that (n−1)C6+(n−1)C7<nC8 is (A) 14 (B) 15 (C) 16 (D) 17
›Reveal solutionSolution
Pascal's identity collapses the left side to (7n); comparing (7n) and (8n) via their ratio gives n>15, so the least integer n is 16.
Concept and Intuition
Pascal's rule (k−1n−1)+(kn−1)=(kn) is the standard tool whenever consecutive binomial coefficients of the same upper index (n−1) appear added together — here with k=7: (6n−1)+(7n−1)=(7n).
Step-by-Step Solution
- Apply Pascal's rule with k=7: (6n−1)+(7n−1)=(7n).
- The inequality (6n−1)+(7n−1)<(8n) becomes (7n)<(8n).
- Compute the ratio: (7n)(8n)=n!/(7!(n−7)!)n!/(8!(n−8)!)=8!(n−8)!7!(n−7)!=8n−7.
- Require this ratio >1: 8n−7>1⇒n−7>8⇒n>15.
- The least integer satisfying n>15 (and n≥8 so all the binomial coefficients are defined) is n=16.
Common Mistakes
- Forgetting to check that Pascal's rule requires matching lower indices (k−1 and k with the same upper index n−1) — here it applies cleanly since both terms share the upper index n−1 and consecutive lower indices 6,7.
✓Final answerThe correct option is (C) — 16.
ANSWER: C
- AP EAPCET 2023Set eng-2023-05-18-FN1 markMCQQ.The least value of n for which (n−1)C2+(n−1)C3>nC2 is (A) 7 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6
›Reveal solutionSolution
Pascal's rule collapses the left side to ⁿC₃, turning the inequality into ⁿC₃>ⁿC₂, which first becomes strictly true at n=6.
Concept and Intuition
Recognising the Pascal's-triangle identity ⁿ⁻¹Cᵣ + ⁿ⁻¹Cᵣ₊₁ = ⁿCᵣ₊₁ immediately simplifies the left-hand side, turning a two-term inequality into a clean single-binomial comparison.
Step-by-Step Solution
- By Pascal's identity: ⁿ⁻¹C₂ + ⁿ⁻¹C₃ = ⁿC₃.
- The inequality becomes ⁿC₃ > ⁿC₂.
- Compute the ratio: ⁿC₃/ⁿC₂ = [n!/(3!(n−3)!)] / [n!/(2!(n−2)!)] = (n−2)/3.
- We need (n−2)/3 > 1 ⟹ n > 5.
- Check n=5: ⁵C₃=10, ⁵C₂=10 — equal, not strictly greater, so n=5 fails.
- Check n=6: ⁶C₃=20, ⁶C₂=15 — 20>15, holds.
- So the least n satisfying the inequality is 6.
Common Mistakes
- Forgetting the inequality is strict (>), so the boundary case n=5 (equality) does not count.
- Not simplifying via Pascal's identity first, leading to messier direct binomial-coefficient algebra.
✓Final answerThe correct option is (D) — 6.
ANSWER: D
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