Q.Is 3!+4!=7!?
Concept understanding — Factorial Arithmetic
Factorial Arithmetic — From Intuition to Precision
Imagine you have 3 different books you want to arrange on a shelf. How many different ways can you line them up? You could try listing them: Book A, B, C — or A, C, B — or B, A, C — and so on. If you actually count, you'll find 6 arrangements.
Where does that 6 come from? For the first position, you have 3 choices. Once you pick one, you have 2 choices left for the second position. Then only 1 choice remains for the last spot. So the total is 3×2×1=6.
That product — multiplying a whole number by every positive integer smaller than it, all the way down to 1 — is called a factorial. It's one of the most useful shortcuts in counting.
n!=n×(n−1)×(n−2)×⋯×2×1
The symbol is an exclamation mark: n! is read as "n factorial". It only makes sense for non-negative integers.
The first few values
| n | n! | Why it matters |
|---|---|---|
| 0 | 1 | Special case (explained below) |
| 1 | 1 | Only one way to arrange one thing |
| 2 | 2 | Two ways: AB or BA |
| 3 | 6 | Three books, six arrangements |
| 4 | 24 | Four items, 24 arrangements |
| 5 | 120 | Grows fast — five books, 120 ways |
0!=1 is not a guess — it's defined to make formulas work. There is exactly one way to arrange zero objects: do nothing. Also, many formulas like n!=n×(n−1)! would break at n=1 if 0! weren't 1.
The recursive nature
Factorials have a beautiful pattern: every factorial is the current number times the previous factorial.
5!=5×4!
4!=4×3!
3!=3×2!
2!=2×1!
1!=1×0!=1×1=1
This recursive definition is often how you'll compute factorials in problems: n!=n×(n−1)!, with the base case 0!=1.
Why factorials explode so fast
Notice how quickly the numbers grow: 5!=120, 6!=720, 7!=5040, 10!=3,628,800. By 20!, you're already at 2.4 quintillion. This rapid growth is why factorials appear in probability (counting arrangements of decks of cards), combinatorics (choosing teams), and even in advanced mathematics like Taylor series.
A common mistake: thinking n! means n multiplied by something else, like n times some number. It's not — it's the product of all integers from n down to 1. Also, factorials are not defined for negative numbers or fractions in basic arithmetic.
The core idea in one sentence
Factorial arithmetic is simply the arithmetic of these products — adding, subtracting, multiplying, and dividing expressions that contain factorials. The key skill is learning to cancel common factors when simplifying, especially in fractions like 7!10!.
For example:
7!10!=7!10×9×8×7!=10×9×8=720
You never need to fully expand both factorials — just write out the part that doesn't cancel.
That's the intuition: factorials count arrangements, grow fast, and simplify beautifully when you keep them as products rather than computing the full number.
Factorial Arithmetic is a building block of the NCERT Class 11 Mathematics chapter on Permutations and Combinations, and mastering it is essential before tackling factorial-based important questions in CBSE board exams. Searches like "factorial arithmetic definition, formula and examples" or "n! formula class 11 maths" reflect exactly the kind of foundational practice this concept supports, and it remains a quick-scoring warm-up topic in JEE Main counting problems.
Concept: Factorial arithmetic and exponential growth.
The claim asks whether 3!+4!=7!. We compute each factorial directly.
3!=3×2×1=6
4!=4×3×2×1=24
3!+4!=6+24=30
Now check 7!:
7!=7×6×5×4×3×2×1=5040
Since 30=5040, the equation is false. Factorials grow explosively—adding two small factorials cannot equal a much larger one.
No, 3!+4!=30 while 7!=5040, so the equation is false.
Factorials grow explosively, not additively. Computing both sides shows 3!+4!=30 while 7!=5040, so the equation is false.
Why factorials don't add like ordinary numbers
When you see 3!+4! and wonder if it equals 7!, you're testing whether factorials behave like exponents (where 23⋅24=27) or like simple addition. They don't. A factorial n! means multiplying all integers from 1 to n, and this multiplication grows so rapidly that adding two factorials gives a result vastly smaller than the factorial of their sum.
The key insight: 7! includes the product 1×2×3×4×5×6×7, which is astronomically larger than just adding 3! and 4!.
Computing each side
-
Left side: 3!+4!
Start with each factorial:
3!=3×2×1=6
4!=4×3×2×1=24
Adding them:
3!+4!=6+24=30
-
Right side: 7!
Now compute the factorial of 7:
7!=7×6×5×4×3×2×1
Work through the multiplication:
7×6=42
42×5=210
210×4=840
840×3=2520
2520×2=5040
5040×1=5040
So 7!=5040.
-
Comparison
We have 30 on the left and 5040 on the right. These are nowhere close: 7! is 168 times larger than 3!+4!.
A common misconception is that factorials might combine additively like a+b=c⟹a!+b!=c!. This never holds for a,b≥2 because factorial growth is multiplicative and explosive.
To see why factorials grow so fast, notice that 7!=7×6×5×4!. Even if we had 4! on the left, multiplying it by 7×6×5=210 to get 7! shows the enormous gap.
No, 3!+4!=7! because 30=5040.
Showing the 12 most recent of 19 on this concept.
- AP EAPCET 2026Set eng-2026-05-12-FN1 markMCQQ.If n is an integer between 0 and 31, then the minimum value of n!(31−n)! is (A) 10!21! (B) 15!16! (C) 30! (D) 31!
›Reveal solutionSolution
n!(31−n)! is minimized exactly where (n31) is maximized — the middle of the range 0≤n≤31 — giving 15!16!.
Concept and Intuition
Since (n31)=n!(31−n)!31! and 31! is fixed, minimizing n!(31−n)! is the same as maximizing (n31). Binomial coefficients (nN) are known to be largest at the centre of the range n=0,…,N and to decrease symmetrically toward the ends — so the minimum of n!(31−n)! occurs at the centre, not at the extremes.
Step-by-Step Solution
- We want to minimize f(n)=n!(31−n)! for integer n in [0,31].
- Note f(n)=(n31)31!, so minimizing f(n) is equivalent to maximizing (n31).
- For (nN), the maximum occurs at n=⌊N/2⌋ (and also at n=⌈N/2⌉ if N is odd, by the symmetry (nN)=(N−nN)).
- Here N=31 is odd, so the two largest, equal binomial coefficients occur at n=15 and n=16: (1531)=(1631).
- So the minimum of f(n)=n!(31−n)! occurs at n=15 (or equivalently n=16): f(15)=15!×16!.
Common Mistakes
- Assuming the minimum occurs at an endpoint (n=0 or n=31, giving 31! or 0!31!=31!) — that's actually the maximum of n!(31−n)!, not the minimum, since factorials grow so fast that splitting evenly makes the product of factorials smallest.
- Forgetting the odd/even distinction: for odd N=31 the minimizing n isn't unique (both 15 and 16 work), giving 15!16! (not a single fractional-index answer).
✓Final answerThe correct option is (B) — 15!16!.
ANSWER: B
- AP EAPCET 2026Set eng-2026-05-13-AN1 markMCQQ.The exponent of 6 in 72! is (A) 14 (B) 16 (C) 34 (D) 70
›Reveal solutionSolution
The exponent of a composite number 6=2⋅3 in n! is limited by whichever prime factor is scarcer — here, the exponent of 3, since 3's exponent (34) is much smaller than 2's (70).
Concept and Intuition
When a number is not prime, its exponent (the highest power dividing n!) is governed by the least available exponent among its prime factors, since you can only form as many complete '6's as you can pair a 2 with a 3, and 3s are always scarcer than 2s in n! for n≥2. Legendre's formula gives the exponent of a prime p in n! as ∑k≥1⌊pkn⌋.
Step-by-Step Solution
- Exponent of 2 in 72!: ⌊272⌋+⌊472⌋+⌊872⌋+⌊1672⌋+⌊3272⌋+⌊6472⌋=36+18+9+4+2+1=70.
- Exponent of 3 in 72!: ⌊372⌋+⌊972⌋+⌊2772⌋+⌊8172⌋=24+8+2+0=34.
- Exponent of 6 in 72! =min(70,34)=34.
Common Mistakes
- Adding the two exponents (70+34) instead of taking the minimum.
- Forgetting a higher power term (e.g. 72/81=0) or miscounting one of the floor divisions.
✓Final answerThe correct option is (C) — 34.
ANSWER: C
- AP EAPCET 2026Set eng-2026-05-15-AN1 markMCQQ.If nP4=5040 and 15Pr=2730, then nPr= (A) 120 (B) 720 (C) 1680 (D) 840
›Reveal solutionSolution
Match nP4=5040 to n=10 and 15Pr=2730 to r=3 by recognizing the products of consecutive integers, then compute 10P3=720.
Concept and Intuition
nPk is just the product of k consecutive integers counting down from n. Rather than solving factorial equations algebraically, it's much faster to recognize these products directly by testing nearby integers, since permutation values grow fast and are easy to bracket.
Step-by-Step Solution
- nP4=n(n−1)(n−2)(n−3)=5040. Testing n=10: 10×9×8×7=5040. ✓ So n=10.
- 15Pr=15×14×⋯×(16−r)=2730. Testing r=3: 15×14×13=2730. ✓ So r=3.
- Now compute nPr=10P3=10×9×8=720.
Common Mistakes
- Forgetting nPk has exactly k factors, e.g. mis-testing r=2 (15×14=210=2730) or r=4 (15×14×13×12=32760=2730).
- Confusing n and r when finally computing nPr — it's n=10 from the first equation and r=3 from the second.
✓Final answerThe correct option is (B) — 720.
ANSWER: B
- AP EAPCET 2025Set eng-2025-05-22-AN1 markMCQQ.If 27Pr+7=7722 25P(r+4), then r= (A) 9 (B) 12 (C) 11 (D) 10
›Reveal solutionSolution
Write both permutation expressions using nPk=(n−k)!n!, simplify the factorial ratio, and solve the resulting linear equation for r. Answer: r=10.
Concept and Intuition
Permutation expressions with a variable in both the upper and lower index often simplify beautifully once you write everything as factorial ratios — most of the factorial cancels, leaving a simple linear (or low-degree) equation.
Step-by-Step Solution
- 27Pr+7=(27−(r+7))!27!=(20−r)!27!.
- 25Pr+4=(25−(r+4))!25!=(21−r)!25!.
- The given equation: (20−r)!27!=7722⋅(21−r)!25!.
- Write 27!=27×26×25!, so 25!27!=702. The equation becomes 702⋅(20−r)!25!=7722⋅(21−r)!25!, and 25! cancels.
- So (20−r)!702=(21−r)!7722, i.e. (20−r)!(21−r)!=7027722=11.
- Since (21−r)!=(21−r)⋅(20−r)!, this ratio is simply (21−r). So 21−r=11⇒r=10.
- Check validity: for 25Pr+4 to make sense we need r+4≤25, i.e. r≤21 — satisfied by r=10.
Common Mistakes
- Miscomputing the factorial ratio 27!/25! (it's 27×26=702, not 27 alone).
- Sign/index slip when expanding (27−(r+7)) or (25−(r+4)).
✓Final answerThe correct option is (D) — 10.
ANSWER: D
- AP EAPCET 2025Set eng-2025-05-22-FN1 markMCQQ.The number of divisors of 7! is (A) 72 (B) 24 (C) 64 (D) 60
›Reveal solutionSolution
Prime-factorizing 7!=24⋅32⋅5⋅7 and applying the divisor-count formula (e1+1)(e2+1)⋯ gives 60 divisors.
Concept and Intuition
If n=p1e1p2e2⋯pkek, the total number of positive divisors of n is (e1+1)(e2+1)⋯(ek+1), since each divisor is formed by independently choosing an exponent from 0 to ei for each prime.
Step-by-Step Solution
- 7!=1×2×3×4×5×6×7=5040.
- Prime factorize by counting powers of each prime ≤7 among 1,…,7:
- Power of 2: from 2,4=22,6=2×3 → 21+2+1=24.
- Power of 3: from 3,6=2×3 → 31+1=32.
- Power of 5: from 5 → 51.
- Power of 7: from 7 → 71. So 7!=24⋅32⋅51⋅71 (check: 16×9×5×7=144×35=5040 ✓).
- Number of divisors =(4+1)(2+1)(1+1)(1+1)=5×3×2×2.
- 5×3=15, 15×2=30, 30×2=60.
Common Mistakes
- Forgetting that a divisor count formula uses (exponent + 1) for each prime, not the exponent itself.
- Miscounting the power of 2 or 3 in the factorial (easy to under-count contributions from composite numbers like 4 and 6).
✓Final answerThe correct option is (D) — 60.
ANSWER: D
- AP EAPCET 2025Set eng-2025-05-27-FN1 markMCQQ.r=1∑15r2(15Cr−115Cr)= (A) 560 (B) 680 (C) 840 (D) 1020
›Reveal solutionSolution
Simplify the binomial-coefficient ratio first, turning the sum into a simple polynomial sum; the total is 680.
Concept and Intuition
The ratio nCr−1nCr=rn−r+1 is a standard simplification that converts an awkward combinatorial sum into ordinary arithmetic series.
Step-by-Step Solution
- With n=15: 15Cr−115Cr=r15−r+1=r16−r.
- So each term r2⋅r16−r=r(16−r)=16r−r2.
- Sum from r=1 to 15: ∑16r−∑r2=16⋅215⋅16−615⋅16⋅31.
- =16×120−1240=1920−1240=680.
Common Mistakes
- Misremembering the ratio formula (e.g. inverting it to 16−rr).
- Arithmetic slips in ∑r2=6n(n+1)(2n+1) for n=15.
✓Final answerThe correct option is (B) — 680.
ANSWER: B
- AP EAPCET 2023Set eng-2023-05-16-AN1 markMCQQ.The greatest integer r such that 30r divides 30! is (A) 8 (B) 7 (C) 6 (D) 5
›Reveal solutionSolution
30r=2r3r5r divides 30! only as far as the scarcest prime factor allows — and 5 appears only 7 times in 30!, so r=7.
Concept and Intuition
Legendre's formula gives the exact power of a prime p dividing n!: ∑k≥1⌊n/pk⌋. Since 30=2×3×5, 30r needs r copies of each of 2,3,5 simultaneously; the answer is the minimum of the three individual prime-power counts in 30!.
Step-by-Step Solution
- Power of 5 in 30!: ⌊30/5⌋+⌊30/25⌋=6+1=7.
- Power of 3 in 30!: ⌊30/3⌋+⌊30/9⌋+⌊30/27⌋=10+3+1=14.
- Power of 2 in 30!: ⌊30/2⌋+⌊30/4⌋+⌊30/8⌋+⌊30/16⌋=15+7+3+1=26.
- 30r=2r⋅3r⋅5r divides 30! only while r≤min(26,14,7)=7.
Common Mistakes
- Forgetting to break 30 into its prime factors and instead trying to count "how many multiples of 30" are in 30! directly (also works but is more error-prone).
- Missing higher powers of 5 or 3 (e.g. forgetting ⌊30/25⌋=1).
✓Final answerThe correct option is (B) — 7.
ANSWER: B
- AP EAPCET 2023Set eng-2023-05-16-AN1 markMCQQ.The number of arrangements of the letters of the word ARRANGEMENT in which two Es' do not occur adjacently is (A) 89(10)! (B) 49(10)! (C) 169(10)! (D) 329(10)!
›Reveal solutionSolution
Total arrangements minus the "E's glued together" arrangements gives the count with the two E's never adjacent: 169⋅10!.
Concept and Intuition
The standard technique for "certain letters must NOT be adjacent" is: (Total arrangements) − (arrangements where they ARE adjacent, found by gluing them into a single block). Both counts must account for the word's repeated letters correctly.
Step-by-Step Solution
- ARRANGEMENT = A,R,R,A,N,G,E,M,E,N,T — 11 letters with A:2, R:2, N:2, E:2, and G,M,T:1 each.
- Total distinct arrangements =2!2!2!2!11!=1611!.
- To count arrangements with the two E's adjacent, glue them into a single unit "EE" (they're identical, so no internal ordering needed). Now we arrange 10 units: A,A,R,R,N,N,G,M,T,[EE] — repeats A:2,R:2,N:2 remain. Arrangements =2!2!2!10!=810!.
- Arrangements with E's not adjacent =1611!−810!. Since 11!=11×10!: =1611×10!−162×10!=169×10!.
Common Mistakes
- Forgetting one of the four repeated-letter pairs (A, R, N, or E) when dividing by factorials.
- Adding instead of subtracting the "glued" count.
✓Final answerThe correct option is (C) — 169(10)!.
ANSWER: C
- AP EAPCET 2023Set eng-2023-05-16-FN1 markMCQQ.If 2n divides 16! and 2n+1 does not divide 16!, then n= (A) 14 (B) 15 (C) 16 (D) 17
›Reveal solutionSolution
Legendre's formula sums ⌊16/2i⌋ for i=1,2,3,4 to get the exact power of 2 in 16!, which is 15.
Concept and Intuition
The exponent of a prime p in n! is given by Legendre's formula: ∑i=1∞⌊pin⌋ — this counts multiples of p, then multiples of p2 (which contribute an extra factor), and so on, until pi>n.
Step-by-Step Solution
- Apply Legendre's formula with n=16, p=2: sum ⌊216⌋+⌊416⌋+⌊816⌋+⌊1616⌋+⌊3216⌋+…
- ⌊216⌋=8, ⌊416⌋=4, ⌊816⌋=2, ⌊1616⌋=1, and ⌊3216⌋=0 (terms vanish beyond this).
- Sum: 8+4+2+1=15.
- So 215 divides 16! exactly (i.e. 215∣16! but 216∤16!), giving n=15.
Common Mistakes
- Stopping the sum too early (e.g. only counting ⌊16/2⌋+⌊16/4⌋) and missing the higher-power contributions from 8=23 and 16=24.
✓Final answerThe correct option is (B) — 15.
ANSWER: B
- AP EAPCET 2023Set eng-2023-05-17-FN1 markMCQQ.If f(n)=n!(31−n)!, where n∈{0,1,2,…,31}, then the minimum value of f(n) is (A) (15!)(15!) (B) (15!)(14!) (C) (14!)(16!) (D) (15!)(16!)
›Reveal solutionSolution
f(n)=n!(31−n)! is inversely proportional to (n31), so it's smallest where the binomial coefficient is largest — at n=15 or 16, giving minimum value 15!⋅16!.
Concept and Intuition
Binomial coefficients (nN) are largest at the middle value(s) of n and taper off symmetrically toward the ends. Since f(n)=n!(31−n)!=31!/(n31), maximizing (n31) minimizes f(n).
Step-by-Step Solution
- Note (n31)=n!(31−n)!31!=f(n)31!, so f(n)=(n31)31!.
- f(n) is minimized exactly when (n31) is maximized.
- Since 31 is odd, (n31) attains its maximum at the two central, equal values n=15 and n=16 (as (1531)=(1631)).
- So the minimum value of f(n) is f(15)=15!(31−15)!=15!16! (equal to f(16)=16!15!).
Common Mistakes
- Assuming the minimum occurs at the extremes (n=0 or 31) — those actually give the maximum of f(n) (since (031)=1 is the minimum binomial coefficient).
- Picking only one of 15,16 without checking they give equal, and correct, values.
✓Final answerThe correct option is (D) — (15!)(16!).
ANSWER: D
- AP EAPCET 2023Set eng-2023-05-19-FN1 markMCQQ.If N(n)=nr=1∏2023(n2−r2) (n>2023), then NCN−1 when n=2024 is (A) (4047)! (B) (4048)! (C) (6023)! (D) (6069)!
›Reveal solutionSolution
The product telescopes to N(2024)=4047!, and since (N−1N)=N for any N, the answer is simply 4047!.
Concept and Intuition
Two ideas combine here: (1) the product ∏r=1k(n−r)(n+r) telescopes into ratios of factorials, and (2) the combinatorial identity (N−1N)=N (choosing N−1 out of N is the same as leaving one out, of which there are N ways) means we never actually need to compute a huge binomial coefficient — just N itself.
Step-by-Step Solution
- N(n)=nr=1∏2023(n2−r2)=nr=1∏2023(n−r)(n+r).
- At n=2024: as r runs 1 to 2023, (n−r) runs from 2023 down to 1, so ∏(n−r)=2023!.
- As r runs 1 to 2023, (n+r) runs from 2025 to 4047, so ∏(n+r)=2024!4047! (product of all integers up to 4047, divided by the product up to 2024).
- So N(2024)=2024×2023!×2024!4047!. Since 2024×2023!=2024!, this simplifies to 2024!2024!×4047!=4047!.
- Finally, (N−1N)=(N−1)!1!N!=N=4047!.
Common Mistakes
- Trying to actually expand or estimate the binomial coefficient (N−1N) as if it were a complicated quantity, missing that it always simply equals N.
✓Final answerThe correct option is (A) — (4047)!.
ANSWER: A
- AP EAPCET 2022Set eng-2022-07-04-AN1 markMCQQ.A natural number n such that n! ends in exactly 1000 zeros is (A) 4010 (B) 4000 (C) 4009 (D) 4004
›Reveal solutionSolution
Using Legendre's formula for the power of 5 dividing n!, only n=4009 (among the given choices) gives exactly 1000 trailing zeros; the count jumps to 1001 at n=4010 and sits at 999 for n=4000 or 4004.
Concept and Intuition
The number of trailing zeros in n! equals the exponent of 5 in its prime factorisation (since factors of 2 are always in surplus), computed by Legendre's formula: Z(n)=∑i=1∞⌊5in⌋. This function only increases at multiples of 5, and stays constant over each run of 5 consecutive integers between one multiple of 5 and the next.
Step-by-Step Solution
- Compute Z(4009)=⌊54009⌋+⌊254009⌋+⌊1254009⌋+⌊6254009⌋+⌊31254009⌋ =801+160+32+6+1=1000.
- Compute Z(4010)=802+160+32+6+1=1001 (jumps because 4010 is again a multiple of 5, adding one more to the first term).
- Compute Z(4000)=800+160+32+6+1=999 and Z(4004)=800+160+32+6+1=999 (both below 4005, the next multiple of 5 where the count steps up to 1000).
- So the count is exactly 1000 for n=4005,4006,4007,4008,4009, and only 4009 appears among the answer choices.
Common Mistakes
- Forgetting the higher-power terms (⌊n/625⌋, ⌊n/3125⌋) which still contribute at this magnitude of n.
- Assuming zeros increase steadily by exactly 1 at every integer, rather than remaining constant over blocks of 5 and jumping by more than 1 at multiples of 25, 125, etc.
✓Final answerThe correct option is (C) — 4009.
ANSWER: C
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