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Geography · 2024 · Set 64/2/1

CBSE Class 12 Geography 2024 — Set 64/2/1

CBSE Class XII Board 2024 · Set 64/2/1

Real board examination
Sets

About this paper

The real Class-12 board examination held in 2024. Every question below is solved the concept-first way. Sample papers are labelled honestly — never shown as a past exam.

Total marks
70
Questions
30
Duration
180 min
Sections
5

The marks / questions / duration above are the official exam pattern. We currently have 30 of this paper’s questions (100% of the full paper), with 30 fully solved. Questions we couldn’t yet extract or verify are held — never shown as complete.

Sections & marks

SectionTypeQuestionsMarks eachTotal
ASection AMCQ17117
BSection BSource-based (three sub-questions 1+1+1)236
CSection CShort answer (80-100 words)4312
DSection DLong answer (120-150 words)5525
ESection EMap-based (World political map + political map of India)2510
Total3070

The question paper

The questions we hold for this paper, laid out by section. Solutions are on the Answers tab.

Board Examination

Geography

CBSE Class XII Board 2024 · Set 64/2/1

Series/Set: 64/2/1Roll No. ________
Time Allowed: 3 hoursMaximum Marks: 70

General Instructions

  1. This question paper contains 30 questions divided into 5 sections — A, B, C, D, E.
  2. Section A comprises 17 questions of 1 mark each (MCQ).
  3. Section B comprises 2 questions of 3 marks each (Source-based (three sub-questions 1+1+1)).
  4. Section C comprises 4 questions of 3 marks each (Short answer (80-100 words)).
  5. Section D comprises 5 questions of 5 marks each (Long answer (120-150 words)).
  6. Section E comprises 2 questions of 5 marks each (Map-based (World political map + political map of India)).

Above is the official exam pattern. The questions printed below are those we currently hold for this paper.

Section A

MCQ · 1 mark each · 17 of 17 shown

Q1.
Read the following factors of migration carefully and choose the correct option related to pull factors : I. Peace and stability II. Unfavourable climate III. Protection of property IV. Economic backwardness Options : (A) Only I and II are correct. (B) Only I and III are correct. (C) Only II and IV are correct. (D) Only II and III are correct.
[1]
Q2.
Which one of the following is an approach of Human Development ? (A) Equity (B) Productivity (C) Capability (D) Empowerment
[1]
Q3.
Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option : Column I (Area) - Column II (Animal Domestication) 1. Tropical Africa -
  • (i) Camel 2. Asiatic Deserts -
  • (ii) Cattle 3. Mountainous areas of Tibet -
  • (iii) Reindeer 4. Sub-Arctic areas -
  • (iv) Llamas Options : (A) 1-(ii), 2-(i), 3-(iv), 4-(iii) (B) 1-(i), 2-(ii), 3-(iv), 4-(iii) (C) 1-(ii), 2-(i), 3-(iii), 4-(iv) (D) 1-(i), 2-(ii), 3-(iii), 4-(iv)
[1]
Q4.
Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option : Assertion (A) : Foot loose industries can be located in a wide variety of places. Reason (R) : The important factor in the location of foot loose industries is accessibility by transport network. Options : (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
[1]
Q5.
Production of information is related to which one of the following sectors ? (A) Primary (B) Secondary (C) Tertiary (D) Quaternary
[1]
Page 1 of 6
Q6.
Read the following characteristics of retail trading carefully and choose the correct option : I. This is concerned with the sale of goods directly to the consumers. II. Most of the retail trading takes place in fixed establishments or stores. III. It is formed by many middlemen, traders and suppliers. IV. Hawkers, street peddling, automatic vending machines, etc. are its examples. Options : (A) Only I, II and III are correct. (B) Only I, II and IV are correct. (C) Only II, III and IV are correct. (D) Only I, III and IV are correct.
[1]
Q7.
Which one of the following is known as 'Big Inch' pipeline ? (A) Iran - India via Pakistan (B) Iran - China via Afghanistan (C) Hazira - Vijaypur to Jagdishpur (D) Gulf of Mexico to northeastern USA
[1]
Q8.
Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option : Assertion (A) : Countries need to be cautious about dumped goods under free trade. Reason (R) : Dumping of goods can harm the domestic producers. Options : (A) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (B) (A) is false, but (R) is true. (C) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (D) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
[1]
Q9.
Choose the correct option to fill in the blank : The groundwater utilization is very high in ____. If the present trend of groundwater utilization continues, it would be very difficult to meet the water needs. (A) Punjab (B) Odisha (C) Kerala (D) Chhattisgarh
[1]
Q10.
Choose the correct option to fill in the blank in the flow chart : [Flow chart: Minerals branch into Metallic and Non-metallic. Non-metallic branches into 'Fuel mineral - Example - Coal' and 'Other non-metallic minerals - Example ____'.] Options : (A) Gold (B) Bauxite (C) Graphite (D) Manganese
[1]
Q11.
Which one of the following places is the easternmost station of 'East-West Corridor' ? (A) Digboi (B) Silchar (C) Guwahati (D) Itanagar
[1]
Q12.
Read the programmes related to the proposed Bharatmala umbrella scheme carefully and choose the correct option : I. Backward areas, religious and tourist places connectivity programme II. To interconnect the four metropolitan cities of the country III. To develop State roads in adjoining coastal areas IV. To connect non-major ports in coastal states Options : (A) Only I, II and III are correct. (B) Only II, III and IV are correct. (C) Only I, III and IV are correct. (D) Only I, II and IV are correct.
[1]
Q13.
'Swachh Bharat Mission' has been launched by which one of the following ? (A) Government of Madhya Pradesh (B) Government of India (C) Non Governmental Organisation (D) World Health Organisation
[1]
Q14.
Which one of the following diseases is caused by water pollution ? (A) Hepatitis (B) Asthma (C) Pneumonia (D) Deafness
[1]
Page 2 of 6
Q15.
Study the following diagram carefully and answer the question. [Diagram - 'Changes in Shares of Land-use Categories in India : 1950-51 and 2014-15', Per cent of reporting area (values shown as 1950-51 2014-15): Forests 17 23.3; Area under non-agricultural use 3.2 8.7; Barren and unculturable waste land 13.4 5.5; Permanent pasture and grazing land 2.3 3.3; Area under Misc. Tree crops and groves 6.9 1.0; Culturable Waste Land 8 4; Fallow other than Current fallow 6.1 3.6; Current fallow 3.7 4.9; Net Area sown 41.7 45.5] In comparison to 1950 - 51, which of the following categories has decreased the most in 2014 - 15 ? (A) Forests (B) Permanent pasture and grazing land (C) Barren and unculturable wasteland (D) Culturable wasteland
[1]
Q16.
Study the following diagram carefully and answer the question. [Diagram - 'Changes in Shares of Land-use Categories in India : 1950-51 and 2014-15', Per cent of reporting area (values shown as 1950-51 2014-15): Forests 17 23.3; Area under non-agricultural use 3.2 8.7; Barren and unculturable waste land 13.4 5.5; Permanent pasture and grazing land 2.3 3.3; Area under Misc. Tree crops and groves 6.9 1.0; Culturable Waste Land 8 4; Fallow other than Current fallow 6.1 3.6; Current fallow 3.7 4.9; Net Area sown 41.7 45.5] In comparison to 1950 - 51, which one of the following categories has the highest difference of increase in 2014 - 15 ? (A) Barren and unculturable wasteland (B) Net area sown (C) Area under non-agricultural uses (D) Current fallow
[1]
Q17.
Study the following diagram carefully and answer the question. [Diagram - 'Changes in Shares of Land-use Categories in India : 1950-51 and 2014-15', Per cent of reporting area (values shown as 1950-51 2014-15): Forests 17 23.3; Area under non-agricultural use 3.2 8.7; Barren and unculturable waste land 13.4 5.5; Permanent pasture and grazing land 2.3 3.3; Area under Misc. Tree crops and groves 6.9 1.0; Culturable Waste Land 8 4; Fallow other than Current fallow 6.1 3.6; Current fallow 3.7 4.9; Net Area sown 41.7 45.5] Which one of the following is the correct difference in 'Net Area Sown' between 1950 - 51 and 2014 - 15 ? (A) 3·6% (of reporting area) (B) 3·7% (of reporting area) (C) 3·8% (of reporting area) (D) 3·9% (of reporting area)
[1]
Section B

Source-based (three sub-questions 1+1+1) · 3 marks each · 2 of 2 shown

Q1.
Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow : Land Degradation The pressure on agricultural land increases not only due to the limited availability but also by deterioration of quality of agricultural land. Soil erosion, waterlogging, salinisation and alkalinisation of land lead to land degradation. What happens if land is consistently used without managing its fertility ? Land is degraded and productivity declines. Land degradation is generally understood either as a temporary or a permanent decline in productive capacity of the land. Though all degraded land may not be wasteland, but unchecked process of degradation may lead to the conversion to wasteland. There are two processes that induce land degradation. These are natural and created by human beings. National Remote Sensing Centre (NRSC) has classified wastelands by using remote sensing techniques and it is possible to categorise these wastelands according to the processes that have created them. There are a few types of wastelands such as gullied/ravinous land, desertic or coastal sands, barren rocky areas, steep sloping land, and glacial areas, which are primarily caused by natural agents. There are other types of degraded lands such as waterlogged and marshy areas, land affected by salinity and alkalinity and land with or without scrub, which have largely been caused by natural as well as human factors. There are some other types of wastelands such as degraded shifting cultivation area, degraded land under plantation crops, degraded forests, degraded pastures, and mining and industrial wastelands, that are caused by human action. (18.1) Explain the meaning of 'land degradation'. (18.2) Explain any one man-made process which is responsible for 'land degradation'. (18.3) Suggest any two measures to solve the problem of 'land degradation'.
[3]
Q2.
Study the given map and answer the questions that follow : (19.1) Name the railway line given in the map. (19.2) Name the places marked as '(A)' and '(B)' in the given map. (19.3) Explain the importance of the railway line given on the map. [Visually Impaired alternative in lieu of Q.19: Explain any three characteristics of the 'Australian Trans-Continental Railway'.]
[3]
Page 3 of 6
Section C

Short answer (80-100 words) · 3 marks each · 4 of 4 shown

Q1.
(a) How has the use of technology helped people to overcome nature's obstacles ? Analyse. OR (b) How does neo-determinism try to achieve balance between two concepts of man - environment relationship ? Analyse.
[3]
Q2.
Explain, with examples, any three economic factors affecting population distribution in the world.
[3]
Q3.
Explain any three basic differences between rural and urban settlements in India.
[3]
Q4.
(a) "The ways to measure human development are constantly being refined." Support the statement with suitable arguments. OR (b) "Equity refers to making equal access to opportunities available to everybody." Support the statement with suitable arguments.
[3]
Section D

Long answer (120-150 words) · 5 marks each · 5 of 5 shown

Q1.
(a) Describe any five features of 'plantation agriculture' in the world. OR (b) Describe any five features of 'extensive commercial grain farming' in the world.
[5]
Page 4 of 6
Q2.
Explain the difference between cottage and large scale industries in the world, with examples.
[5]
Q3.
(a) Analyse the major problems of youth population in India. Suggest two measures to overcome the problems. OR (b) How is discrimination on the basis of gender a crime against humanity ? Suggest two measures to overcome the problem.
[5]
Q4.
"Nuclear power has emerged as a viable source in recent years." Examine the statement with suitable arguments in the context of India.
[5]
Q5.
(a) Explain the importance of rail transport in India. OR (b) Explain sea port as a gateway for international trade in India.
[5]
Page 5 of 6
Section E

Map-based (World political map + political map of India) · 5 marks each · 2 of 2 shown

Q1.
On the given political outline map of the World (on page 25), seven geographical features have been marked as A, B, C, D, E, F and G. Identify any five with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them : A. An area of 'extensive commercial grain farming' B. A terminal station of 'Trans-Siberian Railway' C. An area of 'nomadic herding' D. An area of 'commercial livestock rearing' E. A major sea port of Asia F. A major international airport of Europe G. A major shipping canal [Visually Impaired alternative in lieu of Q.29 - Answer any five: (29.1) Name a major area of 'extensive commercial grain farming' of South America. (29.2) Name the eastern terminal station of 'Trans-Siberian Railway'. (29.3) Name an area of 'nomadic herding' in Africa. (29.4) Name the major country of 'commercial livestock rearing' of South America. (29.5) Name the place where a major international airport is located in Japan. (29.6) In which country is Vancouver International Airport located ? (29.7) Name the shipping canal linking Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea.]
[5]
Q2.
On the given political outline map of India (on page 27), locate and label any five of the following seven geographical features with appropriate symbols : (30.1) State with highest density of population (30.2) State leading in cotton production (30.3) State leading in rice production (30.4) Major iron-ore mines of Maharashtra (30.5) An oil refinery of Uttar Pradesh (30.6) A major sea port of Odisha (30.7) An international airport of Assam [Visually Impaired alternative in lieu of Q.30 - Answer any five: (30.1) Name the state with highest density of population. (30.2) Name the state which is leading in cotton production. (30.3) Name the state which is leading in rice production. (30.4) Name the area of iron-ore mines in Maharashtra. (30.5) Name the state where Jamnagar oil refinery is located. (30.6) Name the state where Tuticorin sea port is located. (30.7) Name the place where an international airport is located in Assam.]
[5]
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