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NCERT Exemplar · Q55

Q.State True or False: The principal value of sin⁡−1(cos⁡(sin⁡−112))\sin^{-1}\left(\cos\left(\sin^{-1}\frac{1}{2}\right)\right) is π3\frac{\pi}{3}.

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The key idea is to evaluate the expression from the inside out, respecting the principal value ranges of inverse trigonometric functions. The final value is π3\frac{\pi}{3}, so the statement is True.

Concept and Intuition

When you see a nested inverse trigonometric function like sin⁡−1(cos⁡(sin⁡−112))\sin^{-1}(\cos(\sin^{-1}\frac{1}{2})), the natural instinct is to work from the innermost layer outward. But there's a subtle trap: inverse trigonometric functions have restricted principal value ranges. For sin⁡−1x\sin^{-1}x, the output lies in [−π2,π2][-\frac{\pi}{2}, \frac{\pi}{2}]. For cos⁡−1x\cos^{-1}x, it lies in [0,π][0, \pi]. Here, we only have sin⁡−1\sin^{-1}, so we must ensure every angle we produce falls within its principal range.

The problem asks whether the entire expression simplifies to π3\frac{\pi}{3}. Let's verify step by step.

Step-by-Step Solution

1. Evaluate the innermost term: sin⁡−112\sin^{-1}\frac{1}{2}

We know sin⁡π6=12\sin\frac{\pi}{6} = \frac{1}{2}, and π6\frac{\pi}{6} lies in the principal range [−π2,π2][-\frac{\pi}{2}, \frac{\pi}{2}] of sin⁡−1\sin^{-1}. Therefore:

sin⁡−112=π6\sin^{-1}\frac{1}{2} = \frac{\pi}{6}

Watch out

A common mistake is to think sin⁡−112\sin^{-1}\frac{1}{2} could also be 5π6\frac{5\pi}{6} or other angles. But the principal value of sin⁡−1\sin^{-1} is only the angle in [−π2,π2][-\frac{\pi}{2}, \frac{\pi}{2}], so π6\frac{\pi}{6} is the unique correct answer.

2. Now evaluate cos⁡(π6)\cos\left(\frac{\pi}{6}\right)

We have:

cos⁡π6=32\cos\frac{\pi}{6} = \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}

So the expression becomes:

sin⁡−1(32)\sin^{-1}\left(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\right)

3. Evaluate sin⁡−1(32)\sin^{-1}\left(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\right) …

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