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Exercise 7.2 · Q1

Q.What should be the price of the bond to yield an effective interest rate of 8% if it has a face value of ₹1,000 and maturity period of 15 years? The nominal interest rate is 10%.

Chandigarh CbseNCERTSubjective· 5mImportance★★★★★
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✓ Free question

The bond’s price is the present value of all future coupon payments plus the present value of the face value, discounted at the market yield of 8%. Using the bond pricing formula, the price comes out to ₹1,171.19.

Why This Approach Works

A bond’s price is simply the sum of all cash flows you’ll receive from it, each discounted back to today at the yield you want to earn. Here, the bond pays a fixed coupon every year (10% of face value) and returns the face value at maturity. If the market yield (8%) is lower than the coupon rate (10%), the bond sells at a premium — you pay more than face value because its coupons are higher than what new bonds offer.

The key idea: we treat the coupon payments as an ordinary annuity and the face value as a single lump sum. Discount both at 8% per year.


Step-by-Step Solution

1. Identify the cash flows

  • Face value F=₹1,000F = ₹1,000
  • Coupon rate = 10% per year, so annual coupon C=0.10×1,000=₹100C = 0.10 \times 1,000 = ₹100
  • Maturity n=15n = 15 years
  • Desired yield (market rate) r=8%=0.08r = 8\% = 0.08

You receive 15 equal coupon payments of ₹100 each, plus ₹1,000 at the end of year 15.

2. Present value of the coupon annuity

The present value of an ordinary annuity of CC per period for nn periods at rate rr is:

PVcoupons=C×1−(1+r)−nrPV_{\text{coupons}} = C \times \frac{1 - (1+r)^{-n}}{r}

Plug in:

PVcoupons=100×1−(1.08)−150.08PV_{\text{coupons}} = 100 \times \frac{1 - (1.08)^{-15}}{0.08}

Compute (1.08)−15(1.08)^{-15}:

(1.08)−15=11.0815≈13.17217≈0.31524(1.08)^{-15} = \frac{1}{1.08^{15}} \approx \frac{1}{3.17217} \approx 0.31524

Then:

1−0.31524=0.684761 - 0.31524 = 0.68476

0.684760.08=8.5595\frac{0.68476}{0.08} = 8.5595

So:

PVcoupons=100×8.5595=₹855.95PV_{\text{coupons}} = 100 \times 8.5595 = ₹855.95

Tip

The factor 1−(1+r)−nr\frac{1 - (1+r)^{-n}}{r} is the annuity present value factor. For r=8%r=8\%, n=15n=15, it’s about 8.5595. Memorising common factors saves time in exams.

3. Present value of the face value

The face value is a single payment at maturity:

PVface=F×(1+r)−n=1,000×0.31524=₹315.24PV_{\text{face}} = F \times (1+r)^{-n} = 1,000 \times 0.31524 = ₹315.24

4. Add them up

Bond price PP is the sum:

P=PVcoupons+PVface=855.95+315.24=₹1,171.19P = PV_{\text{coupons}} + PV_{\text{face}} = 855.95 + 315.24 = ₹1,171.19

Watch out

A common mistake is to use the coupon rate (10%) as the discount rate. That would give exactly ₹1,000 — but the question asks for the price to yield 8%, so you must discount at 8%. Always use the market yield, not the coupon rate.

5. Interpretation

Since the coupon rate (10%) exceeds the market yield (8%), the bond trades at a premium — ₹1,171.19 > ₹1,000. An investor pays extra to receive those higher coupons.


✓Final answer

The bond’s price should be ₹1,171.19 to yield an effective interest rate of 8%.

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