Question 219 of 222
Q.The value of ''n , such that the differential equation ππ π
π π
π = π(ππππ β ππππ + π); (π°π‘ππ«π π, π β πΉ+) is homogeneous, is
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3
Chhattisgarh CgbseSample paperMCQΒ· 1mImportanceβ
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99% Β· 219/222 Questions
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Start your 14-day free trial to unlock the full solution βA differential equation is homogeneous if it can be written in the form . Here, rewriting the given equation shows that for it to be homogeneous, the power must be 1, making option (B) correct.
We need to find so that
is homogeneous for .
Why homogeneity matters: A first-order differential equation is homogeneous if it can be expressed as . This means the right-hand side depends only on the ratio , not on and separately. The test is: replace with and with ; if the equation remains unchanged in form (the cancels out), it's homogeneous.
Let's apply this step by step.
- Rewrite the equation in standard form Divide both sides by (valid since ):
- Simplify the logarithmic term Using , we get:
- Check homogeneity condition Replace by and by (with ). Then becomes , so the logarithmic part is unchanged. The numerator becomes . The denominator becomes . So the transformed right-hand side is:
- For homogeneity, the factor must vanish The original equation had no factor. For the transformed equation to be identical in form to the original, we need for all . This forces the exponent to be zero: , so . β¦
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