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Question 219 of 222

Q.The value of ''n , such that the differential equation 𝒙𝒏 π’…π’š 𝒅𝒙 = π’š(π’π’π’ˆπ’š βˆ’ π’π’π’ˆπ’™ + 𝟏); (𝐰𝐑𝐞𝐫𝐞 𝒙, π’š ∈ 𝑹+) is homogeneous, is
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3

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A differential equation is homogeneous if it can be written in the form dydx=F(yx)\frac{dy}{dx} = F\left(\frac{y}{x}\right). Here, rewriting the given equation shows that for it to be homogeneous, the power nn must be 1, making option (B) correct.

We need to find nn so that

xndydx=y(log⁑yβˆ’log⁑x+1)x^n \frac{dy}{dx} = y(\log y - \log x + 1)

is homogeneous for x,y∈R+x, y \in \mathbb{R}^+.

Why homogeneity matters: A first-order differential equation is homogeneous if it can be expressed as dydx=f(yx)\frac{dy}{dx} = f\left(\frac{y}{x}\right). This means the right-hand side depends only on the ratio y/xy/x, not on xx and yy separately. The test is: replace xx with txtx and yy with tyty; if the equation remains unchanged in form (the tt cancels out), it's homogeneous.

Let's apply this step by step.

  1. Rewrite the equation in standard form Divide both sides by xnx^n (valid since x>0x>0):

dydx=y(log⁑yβˆ’log⁑x+1)xn\frac{dy}{dx} = \frac{y(\log y - \log x + 1)}{x^n}

  1. Simplify the logarithmic term Using log⁑yβˆ’log⁑x=log⁑(yx)\log y - \log x = \log\left(\frac{y}{x}\right), we get:

dydx=y(log⁑yx+1)xn\frac{dy}{dx} = \frac{y\left(\log\frac{y}{x} + 1\right)}{x^n}

  1. Check homogeneity condition Replace xx by txtx and yy by tyty (with t>0t>0). Then yx\frac{y}{x} becomes tytx=yx\frac{ty}{tx} = \frac{y}{x}, so the logarithmic part log⁑yx+1\log\frac{y}{x} + 1 is unchanged. The numerator becomes (ty)(log⁑yx+1)=tβ‹…y(log⁑yx+1)(ty)\left(\log\frac{y}{x} + 1\right) = t \cdot y\left(\log\frac{y}{x} + 1\right). The denominator becomes (tx)n=tnxn(tx)^n = t^n x^n. So the transformed right-hand side is:

tβ‹…y(log⁑yx+1)tnxn=t1βˆ’nβ‹…y(log⁑yx+1)xn\frac{t \cdot y\left(\log\frac{y}{x} + 1\right)}{t^n x^n} = t^{1-n} \cdot \frac{y\left(\log\frac{y}{x} + 1\right)}{x^n}

  1. For homogeneity, the tt factor must vanish The original equation had no tt factor. For the transformed equation to be identical in form to the original, we need t1βˆ’n=1t^{1-n} = 1 for all t>0t>0. This forces the exponent to be zero: 1βˆ’n=01-n = 0, so n=1n=1. …

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