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Question 95 of 104

Q.In an economy, when __________ is insufficient to achieve the level of output corresponding to the full employment, the difference is termed a deflationary gap. (Choose the correct option to fill in the blank) Options : (A) ex-ante Aggregate Demand (B) ex-post Aggregate Demand (C) ex-ante Aggregate Supply (D) ex-post Aggregate Supply

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A deflationary gap occurs when planned (ex-ante) aggregate demand falls short of the level needed for full-employment output. The correct answer is (A) ex-ante Aggregate Demand.

Let’s first get the concept clear. In macroeconomics, the term “gap” refers to the difference between what the economy is actually producing and what it could produce if all resources (labour, capital) were fully employed. That full-employment level of output is also called potential output.

Now, what determines actual output in the short run? According to the Keynesian framework, it is aggregate demand that drives production. Firms produce only as much as they expect to sell. So if total planned spending in the economy — what buyers intend to buy — is less than the value of full-employment output, firms will not produce that full-employment output. They will produce less, leading to unemployment and idle capacity.

That shortfall in planned spending is the deflationary gap. The word “deflationary” signals that the pressure on prices is downward — because demand is too weak to absorb all that could be produced.

Now, why must it be ex-ante (planned) and not ex-post (actual)? Ex-post aggregate demand is always equal to actual output by definition (because what is produced is what is sold, once you account for inventory changes). So ex-post demand can never be “insufficient” — it always matches whatever output happens to be. The gap is about intentions not matching the full-employment target. That is why we use ex-ante concepts.

Deflationary gap = Full-employment output − Actual output

(where actual output is determined by ex-ante aggregate demand) …

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