Q.Intensely lactating mothers do not generally conceive due to the:
Concept understanding — Reproductive Health
Reproductive Health Significance — A First Look
Think of health as a state of complete well-being — not just the absence of disease. Now apply that to the part of your life that involves reproduction, the biological process by which new individuals are created. That is reproductive health: it is not merely about being free from infections or disorders of the reproductive system. It means having a healthy body, a clear understanding of reproductive processes, and the ability to make informed, responsible choices.
The NCERT textbook defines reproductive health as "a total well-being in all aspects of reproduction — physical, emotional, behavioural, and social." That is the core idea. It is not a narrow medical term; it is a broad, positive concept that touches every person, regardless of gender or age.
Why does it matter?
Reproductive health is significant because it directly affects the quality of life of individuals, families, and communities. When people are reproductively healthy, they can:
- Make informed decisions about marriage, family size, and childbearing.
- Prevent and manage sexually transmitted infections (STIs), including HIV/AIDS.
- Avoid unwanted pregnancies and unsafe abortions, which are major causes of maternal death.
- Ensure safe motherhood — proper care during pregnancy, delivery, and after birth reduces risks for both mother and child.
- Recognise and address problems like infertility, menstrual disorders, or reproductive cancers early.
Reproductive health is not only about problems. It also includes positive aspects like sexual well-being, the ability to have a satisfying and safe sex life, and the freedom to decide if, when, and how often to reproduce.
The bigger picture
On a national scale, reproductive health is linked to population control, maternal and child mortality rates, and the spread of diseases. The Indian government has run programmes like the Reproductive and Child Health (RCH) programme to improve access to services, education, and contraception. The goal is not just to reduce numbers — it is to ensure that every birth is wanted, every pregnancy is safe, and every child is healthy.
Reproductive health is a fundamental right, not a privilege. It requires awareness, access to healthcare, and the removal of social taboos that prevent open discussion.
Key components you should know
- Family planning — spacing and limiting births through contraception.
- Maternal and child health care — antenatal care, safe delivery, postnatal care, immunisation.
- Prevention and treatment of STIs — including HIV/AIDS.
- Adolescent reproductive health — education about puberty, menstruation, safe practices.
- Gender equality — empowering women to make decisions about their own bodies.
Reproductive health is not a separate, isolated topic. It is woven into everyday life — from the biology you learn in school to the social norms you encounter, and from personal choices to public policy. Understanding its significance helps you see why governments invest in it, why doctors emphasise it, and why every individual deserves to be reproductively healthy.
Many learners look this topic up as "Reproductive Health notes class 12 biology", "Reproductive Health important questions", or "Reproductive Health diagram and explanation". This concept is directly part of the Reproductive Health chapter in the NCERT/CBSE Class 12 Biology syllabus, and it is also an important topic for NEET and state medical/CET entrance exams, making it worth mastering for both board and competitive-exam preparation.
Lactational Amenorrhoea
During intense lactation, the high levels of prolactin required for milk production exert a suppressive effect on the hypothalamic-pituitary axis. Prolactin inhibits the release of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnH) from the hypothalamus, which in turn reduces the secretion of the gonadotropins—luteinising hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)—from the anterior pituitary.
Without adequate gonadotropin levels, ovarian follicles do not mature properly, ovulation is suppressed, and the menstrual cycle remains in abeyance. This physiological state is called lactational amenorrhoea and serves as a natural, though temporary and not entirely reliable, form of contraception during the early months of exclusive breastfeeding.
The mechanism does not involve blocking gamete transport or fertilisation directly; rather, it prevents the hormonal cascade necessary for ovulation itself.
Intensely lactating mothers do not generally conceive because prolactin suppresses the secretion of gonadotropins (LH and FSH), thereby inhibiting ovulation—(A) Suppression of gonadotropins.
Intense lactation suppresses the release of gonadotropins (FSH and LH), which prevents ovulation and thus conception — a natural, temporary form of contraception known as lactational amenorrhoea.
The phenomenon you're asking about sits at the intersection of reproductive physiology and maternal biology. When a mother is breastfeeding intensely — particularly in the early months postpartum when the infant feeds frequently, day and night — her body undergoes a remarkable hormonal shift that naturally spaces pregnancies.
The key player here is prolactin, the hormone responsible for milk production. Suckling by the infant stimulates the hypothalamus to release prolactin from the anterior pituitary gland. High circulating levels of prolactin have an inhibitory effect on the hypothalamus, specifically suppressing the pulsatile release of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH). Without adequate GnRH pulses, the pituitary does not secrete sufficient amounts of the gonadotropins — follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH).
These two gonadotropins are absolutely essential for the ovarian cycle. FSH drives the maturation of ovarian follicles, while the mid-cycle LH surge triggers ovulation. When their secretion is suppressed during lactation, follicles do not mature properly and ovulation simply does not occur. No ovulation means no egg is released, and without an egg, fertilisation and conception cannot take place.
This natural contraceptive effect is most reliable when breastfeeding is exclusive and frequent (at least every four hours during the day and every six hours at night), the mother has not yet resumed menstruation, and the infant is under six months old. It is called the lactational amenorrhoea method (LAM).
The other options can be ruled out on physiological grounds. Hyper-secretion of gonadotropins would actually promote ovulation, not prevent it. Suppression of gametic transport or fertilisation would imply that ovulation is occurring normally but something downstream is blocked — that is not the mechanism at work here. The block happens much earlier in the cascade, at the level of the brain-pituitary-ovary axis.
The suppression is at the hormonal control level: lactation keeps gonadotropin levels low, which in turn keeps the ovaries quiescent. This is why the effect is temporary and reversible — once breastfeeding frequency decreases or stops, gonadotropin secretion resumes and fertility returns.
In short, intensely lactating mothers do not generally conceive because lactation suppresses the secretion of gonadotropins (FSH and LH), preventing ovulation. The correct answer is (A) Suppression of gonadotropins.
Showing the 12 most recent of 38 on this concept.
- KCET 2026Set UNKNOWN1 markMCQQ.Which of the following Sexually Transmitted Infections (STIs) are not completely curable? (A) AIDS, Genital warts (B) Chlamydiasis, Gonorrhoea (C) Genital warts, Hepatitis B (D) AIDS, Genital herpes
›Reveal solutionSolution
Curability of an STI depends on its causative organism: bacterial infections respond fully to antibiotics, while the viral infections that establish persistent or lifelong infection in the body cannot be completely cured.
Step 1 — Recall the common STIs and their causative agents
Common STIs include gonorrhoea, syphilis, genital herpes, genital warts, chlamydiasis, trichomoniasis, hepatitis-B and HIV/AIDS. Of these, chlamydiasis and gonorrhoea are caused by bacteria.
Step 2 — Assess curability of the bacterial infections
Bacterial STIs like chlamydiasis and gonorrhoea are completely curable if detected early and treated properly with the correct antibiotic course, since the causative bacteria can be eliminated from the body.
Step 3 — Assess curability of AIDS and genital herpes
AIDS is caused by HIV and genital herpes is caused by a herpes simplex virus; both viruses integrate into or persist within host cells, so current medicine can only suppress/manage the infection (antiretroviral therapy for HIV, antivirals to reduce herpes outbreaks) — neither can be completely eliminated from the body, making them not completely curable.
✓Final answerThe correct option is (D) — AIDS and Genital herpes are not completely curable.
- KCET 2026Set UNKNOWN1 markMCQQ.Which of the following statements is NOT true about 'Saheli'? (A) It is a non-steroidal preparation (B) It is a 'once-a-week' pill (C) It has low contraceptive value (D) It has fewer side effects
›Reveal solutionSolution
Saheli's actual advantages are that it is non-steroidal, taken only once a week, and has few side effects with good contraceptive effectiveness — so the claim that it has low contraceptive value is the incorrect statement.
Step 1 — Recall what Saheli is
Saheli is an oral contraceptive developed by Indian scientists at the Central Drug Research Institute (CDRI), Lucknow. It is non-steroidal in nature, which distinguishes it from most other hormonal contraceptive pills. This matches statement (A), which is true.
Step 2 — Check the dosage schedule
Saheli is taken as a 'once-a-week' pill, unlike conventional oral contraceptives that require daily intake. This matches statement (B), which is true.
Step 3 — Check its side-effect profile and efficacy
Saheli is specifically valued because it has very few side effects and a high, not low, contraceptive value when used as prescribed. This makes statement (D) true, but directly contradicts statement (C).
Step 4 — Identify the false statement
Since Saheli is in fact effective (high contraceptive value) rather than weak, the statement that it 'has low contraceptive value' does not describe Saheli correctly.
✓Final answerThe correct option is (C) — 'It has low contraceptive value' is NOT true about Saheli.
- KCET 2025Set C-41 markMCQQ.Choose the correct sequence of sperm transport during ejaculation (A) Seminiferous tubules → rete testis → epididymis → vasa efferentia → vas deferens → ejaculatory duct (B) Seminiferous tubules → vasa efferentia → rete testis → epididymis → vas deferens → ejaculatory duct (C) Seminiferous tubules → rete testis → epididymis → vas deferens → vasa efferentia → ejaculatory duct (D) Seminiferous tubules → rete testis → vasa efferentia → epididymis → vas deferens → ejaculatory duct
›Reveal solutionSolution
Trace the male duct system in anatomical order: seminiferous tubules → rete testis → vasa efferentia → epididymis → vas deferens → ejaculatory duct.
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Site of production. Spermatozoa are produced in the seminiferous tubules of the testicular lobules.
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Rete testis. The seminiferous tubules open, through the short straight tubules (tubuli recti), into the rete testis — a network of channels inside the testis.
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Vasa efferentia. From the rete testis the sperm leave the testis through the vasa efferentia, which emerge from the testis and open into the epididymis.
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Epididymis. The vasa efferentia lead into the epididymis, located along the posterior surface of each testis, where sperm are stored and complete their maturation.
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Vas deferens. The epididymis is continuous with the vas deferens, which ascends into the abdomen and loops over the urinary bladder.
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Ejaculatory duct. The vas deferens receives the duct of the seminal vesicle to form the ejaculatory duct, which stores sperm and carries them into the urethra during ejaculation.
So the path is:
Seminiferous tubules→rete testis→vasa efferentia→epididymis→vas deferens→ejaculatory duct
Option (A) wrongly puts the epididymis before the vasa efferentia; (B) puts the vasa efferentia before the rete testis; (C) puts the vasa efferentia after the vas deferens. Only (D) matches the true sequence.
✓Final answerThe correct option is (D) — Seminiferous tubules → rete testis → vasa efferentia → epididymis → vas deferens → ejaculatory duct.
ANSWER: D
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- KCET 2025Set C-41 markMCQQ.Out of the following options, identify which one is NOT a natural method of contraception ? (A) Implants (B) Lactational amenorrhea (C) Periodic abstinence (D) Coitus interruptus
›Reveal solutionSolution
Natural methods use no device or drug; implants release progestogens from under the skin, so implants are the non-natural method.
Step 1 — What makes a method 'natural'
Natural / traditional methods work by avoiding the meeting of sperm and ovum — no drug, no device, no hormone. They have no side effects, but their chances of failure are high.
Step 2 — Classify each option
- Periodic abstinence (C) — the couple avoids coitus from day 10 to day 17 of the cycle (the fertile period, when ovulation and hence conception is most likely). ✓ Natural.
- Coitus interruptus / withdrawal (D) — the male withdraws the penis before ejaculation, so semen is not deposited in the vagina. ✓ Natural.
- Lactational amenorrhea (B) — during intense breast-feeding after childbirth, ovulation and hence the menstrual cycle do not resume. Effective up to about six months post-partum. ✓ Natural.
- Implants (A) — small capsules containing progestogens (or progestogen + oestrogen) are surgically inserted under the skin; they slowly release hormone that inhibits ovulation and alters the uterine/cervical environment. ✗ This is a hormonal contraceptive, not a natural method.
Step 3 — Conclude
Three of the four are natural; the implant is the artificial (hormonal) one.
✓Final answerThe correct option is (A) — Implants.
ANSWER: A
- KCET 2025Set C-41 markMCQQ.In zygote intrafallopian tube transfer, the embryo upto …………. stage is transferred into the fallopian tube (A) 16 blastomeres (B) 8 blastomeres (C) 32 blastomeres (D) 2 blastomeres
›Reveal solutionSolution
ZIFT transfers the zygote/early embryo up to the 8-blastomere stage into the fallopian tube; beyond 8 blastomeres the embryo goes into the uterus (IUT).
Step 1 — Where ZIFT sits among the ART techniques
Assisted Reproductive Technologies (ART) are used when a couple cannot conceive naturally. After in-vitro fertilisation (IVF) — the so-called 'test-tube baby' programme — the ovum is fertilised in the laboratory and the resulting embryo must be put back into the female body.
Step 2 — The two transfer routes, split by embryo stage
- ZIFT — Zygote Intra-Fallopian Transfer: the zygote or early embryo (up to 8 blastomeres) is transferred into the fallopian tube. The embryo is still at the stage where, naturally, it would be travelling down the fallopian tube — so the tube is the physiologically right place for it.
- IUT — Intra-Uterine Transfer: an embryo with more than 8 blastomeres is transferred into the uterus, because by that stage the natural embryo has already reached the uterus and is preparing to implant.
The boundary between the two is exactly 8 blastomeres — that is the fact the question is testing.
Step 3 — Match the stem
The stem asks for the ZIFT limit ⇒ 8 blastomeres.
✓Final answerThe correct option is (B) — 8 blastomeres.
ANSWER: B
- KCET 2025Set C-41 markMCQQ.Read the following ststements : Statement I : MTP is to get rid off wanted pregnancies due to a causal unprotected intercourse or failure of contraceptives used during coitus or rapes Statement II : MTPs are performed legally by qualified doctors by giving proper medical justification Choose the correct answer from the options given below : (A) Statements I and II are incorrect (B) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect (C) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct (D) Statements I and II are correct
›Reveal solutionSolution
MTP (Medical Termination of Pregnancy) is meant to address UNWANTED pregnancies, not "wanted" ones — Statement I misstates this (whether from the exam's own printed wording or a scan/OCR artifact, the statement as it reads is incorrect); Statement II correctly describes the legal requirement for MTP.
Statement I — incorrect. MTP is legally and medically intended for UNWANTED pregnancies (due to casual/unprotected intercourse, contraceptive failure, or rape) — the statement as printed says "wanted," which is not what MTP addresses.
Statement II — correct. In India, MTPs must be performed by qualified registered medical practitioners, under specific legal conditions with proper medical justification (the MTP Act).
✓Final answerStatement I is incorrect, Statement II is correct — option (C).
- KCET 2025Set C-41 markMCQQ.Identify which one of the given pair of options is correct with respect to Down's syndrome and Turner's syndrome.
Option Down's syndrome symptoms Turner's syndrome symptoms (a) | Short-statured individual | Gynaecomastia in man | |(b) | Round head, partially open mouth | Overall masculine development | |(c) | Broad palm, physical and mental development retarded | Sterile females with rudimentary ovaries | |(d) | Additional copy of an X-chromosome | Absence of an X-chromosome | (A) b (B) c (C) d (D) a›Reveal solutionSolution
Check both halves of each row: Down's = trisomy 21 (broad palm, retarded development); Turner's = 45,X0 (sterile female, rudimentary ovaries). Only row (c) gets both right, and the option naming row c is (B).
Step 1 — Fix the two disorders firmly.
Down's syndrome Turner's syndrome Karyotype Trisomy of chromosome 21 — 47 chromosomes; an autosomal aneuploidy 45, X0 — one X missing; an allosomal monosomy Sex Either sex Female Features Short statured, small round head, furrowed tongue, partially open mouth, broad palm with characteristic palm crease, physical, psychomotor and mental development retarded Sterile female, rudimentary ovaries, lack of other secondary sexual characters A useful contrast that the wrong rows below quietly borrow from: Klinefelter's syndrome (47, XXY) is the one with an additional X chromosome and gynaecomastia (feminine breast development) in an otherwise masculine male.
Step 2 — Test each row.
- Row (a): Down's — "short-statured individual" ✓ (true of Down's). Turner's — "gynaecomastia in man" ✗: gynaecomastia in a male is Klinefelter's, and Turner's individuals are females. Row fails.
- Row (b): Down's — "round head, partially open mouth" ✓. Turner's — "overall masculine development" ✗: Turner's females lack secondary sexual characters; they are not masculinised. Row fails.
- Row (c): Down's — "broad palm, physical and mental development retarded" ✓ (classic trisomy-21 features). Turner's — "sterile females with rudimentary ovaries" ✓ (classic 45,X0 features). Both halves correct.
- Row (d): Down's — "additional copy of an X-chromosome" ✗: Down's is an extra chromosome 21, not an extra X (an extra X is Klinefelter's). Turner's — "absence of an X-chromosome" ✓, but the row is already wrong. Row fails.
Step 3 — Map the row to the option letter.
Only row (c) is correct in both columns, and the option that names row c is (B).
✓Final answerThe correct option is (B) — c (Down's: broad palm, physical and mental development retarded; Turner's: sterile females with rudimentary ovaries).
ANSWER: B
- KCET 2025Set C-41 markMCQQ.The drug prescribed to the patients who have undergone organ transplant is ______ and is produced by ______. (A) Stain, Monascus purpureus (B) Cyclosporin-A, Trichoderma polysporum (C) Statin, Trichoderma polysporum (D) Cyclosporin-A, Monascus purpureus
›Reveal solutionSolution
Two microbial products are commonly confused here; keep the drug and its producer paired correctly — cyclosporin-A ← Trichoderma polysporum, statin ← Monascus purpureus.
Step 1 — Identify the drug from its clinical use.
Organ-transplant patients need an immunosuppressant, so that the recipient's immune system does not reject the grafted organ. The bioactive molecule used as an immunosuppressive agent is cyclosporin-A. This immediately eliminates the statin options (A) and (C), because statins are used to lower blood cholesterol — they act by competitively inhibiting the enzyme responsible for cholesterol synthesis, not by suppressing immunity.
Step 2 — Identify the producer organism.
The two microbes to keep apart:
Product Produced by Use Cyclosporin-A Trichoderma polysporum (a fungus) Immunosuppressant in organ transplant Statins Monascus purpureus (a yeast) Lowering blood cholesterol Step 3 — Combine.
We need cyclosporin-A and Trichoderma polysporum in the same option:
- (A) Statin + Monascus purpureus — a true pair, but the wrong drug for the stem (cholesterol, not transplants). ✗
- (B) Cyclosporin-A + Trichoderma polysporum — correct drug, correct producer. ✓
- (C) Statin + Trichoderma polysporum — both halves mismatched. ✗
- (D) Cyclosporin-A + Monascus purpureus — right drug, wrong producer (the trap). ✗
✓Final answerThe correct option is (B) — Cyclosporin-A, Trichoderma polysporum.
ANSWER: B
- KCET 2025Set C-41 markMCQQ.With respect to limitation of Ecological pyramids, which of the following statements are correct? a) It does not take into account the same species belonging to two or more trophic levels. b) It assumes a simple food chain, something that almost never existed in nature. c) It accommodates saprophytes d) It does not accommodate a food web (A) a and b only (B) a, b and c only (C) a, b and d only (D) b, c and d only
›Reveal solutionSolution
Test each statement against the four NCERT limitations of ecological pyramids; (c) is the odd one out because saprophytes are excluded from pyramids, not accommodated.
Step 1 — Recall the limitations of ecological pyramids (NCERT, Ecosystem).
An ecological pyramid is a neat abstraction, and its neatness is exactly its weakness:
- It does not take into account the same species belonging to two or more trophic levels.
- It assumes a simple food chain, something that almost never exists in nature.
- It does not accommodate a food web.
- Saprophytes are not given any place in ecological pyramids, even though they play a vital role in the ecosystem.
Step 2 — Evaluate each printed statement.
# Statement Verdict a 'Does not take into account the same species belonging to two or more trophic levels.' TRUE — this is limitation 1 verbatim. A sparrow eating seeds and insects sits in two levels; the pyramid cannot show that. ✓ b 'Assumes a simple food chain, something that almost never existed in nature.' TRUE — limitation 2. ✓ c 'It accommodates saprophytes.' FALSE — this is the opposite of the truth. Saprophytes (decomposers) are given no place in the pyramid. The limitation is that it does not accommodate them. ✗ d 'Does not accommodate a food web.' TRUE — limitation 3. Real ecosystems are webs, not chains. ✓ Step 3 — Assemble.
The correct statements are a, b and d.
Step 4 — Eliminate.
- (A) a and b only — incomplete, it drops the true statement (d). ✗
- (B) a, b and c only — includes the false (c). ✗
- (D) b, c and d only — includes the false (c) and drops (a). ✗
- (C) a, b and d only ✓
The trap here is purely one of wording: (c) states a real limitation but with the negation removed.
✓Final answerThe correct option is (C) — a, b and d only.
ANSWER: C
- KCET 2025Set C-41 markMCQQ.Match the plant growth hormones of Column-I with suitable chemical derivatives present in Column-II and choose the correct option given below:(A) a – iii, b – i, c – iv, d – ii (B) a – iii, b – iv, c – i, d – ii (C) a – iii, b – i, c – ii, d – iv (D) a – i, b – ii, c – iii, d – iv
Column-I (Hormone) Column-II (Chemical derivative) a. Abscisic acid i. Adenine derivative b. Gibberellins ii. Indole acetic acid c. Kinetin iii. Carotenoid derivative d. Auxin iv. Terpene ›Reveal solutionSolution
Recall the chemical parentage of the four hormones — ABA from carotenoids, gibberellins as terpenes, kinetin as a modified adenine (purine), auxin as an indole compound — and the matching follows.
Step 1 — (a) Abscisic acid → (iii) Carotenoid derivative
ABA is a sesquiterpenoid synthesised from a carotenoid precursor (cleavage of a xanthophyll). It is the “stress hormone”: it closes stomata under water stress, induces and maintains dormancy in seeds and buds, and antagonises gibberellins.
Step 2 — (b) Gibberellins → (iv) Terpenes
Gibberellins (GA₁, GA₃, … over 100 known) are diterpenoid acids — i.e. terpenes. They cause bolting, internode elongation, delay senescence, and break seed dormancy (opposing ABA).
Step 3 — (c) Kinetin → (i) Adenine derivative
Kinetin is a cytokinin, and cytokinins are modified purines — derivatives of adenine (kinetin itself is N6‑furfurylaminopurine). It was discovered from autoclaved herring sperm DNA, which is exactly why it is a purine/adenine derivative. Cytokinins promote cell division and delay leaf senescence (Richmond–Lang effect).
Step 4 — (d) Auxin → (ii) Indole acetic acid
The natural auxin of plants is IAA — indole‑3‑acetic acid, an indole compound derived from the amino acid tryptophan. Auxins drive apical dominance, cell elongation and rooting.
Step 5 — Assemble
a→iii,b→iv,c→i,d→ii
That is option (B). Option (A) swaps kinetin and gibberellin partners (b–i, c–iv), option (C) wrongly gives kinetin the indole partner, and option (D) is the trivial diagonal, which absurdly calls ABA an adenine derivative.
✓Final answerThe correct option is (B) — a – iii, b – iv, c – i, d – ii.
ANSWER: B
- KCET 2024Set B-41 markMCQQ.The process in which a small part of the vas deferens is removed or tied up through a small incision, is called (A) MTP (B) Vasectomy (C) Tubectomy (D) GIFT
›Reveal solutionSolution
Vas deferens cut/tied → vasectomy (male sterilisation). The name literally contains the duct involved.
Step 1 — Sterilisation as a contraceptive method
Surgical sterilisation is a terminal contraceptive method — it blocks gamete transport, and is therefore highly effective but essentially irreversible. It comes in two forms:
Procedure Sex Duct cut/tied Site of incision Vasectomy Male Vas deferens Scrotum Tubectomy Female Fallopian tube Abdomen / vagina Step 2 — Match the stem
The stem says a small part of the vas deferens is removed or tied up through a small incision. The vas deferens is the male duct that carries sperm from the epididymis to the ejaculatory duct — so cutting it prevents sperm from reaching the semen. That is vasectomy.
Note what vasectomy does not do: it does not stop testosterone, erection, or ejaculation — only the sperm are absent from the ejaculate.
Step 3 — Eliminate the other options
- (A) MTP — Medical Termination of Pregnancy; an abortion, not a sterilisation, and it involves no duct.
- (C) Tubectomy — the female counterpart, performed on the fallopian tubes, not the vas deferens. This is the main trap.
- (D) GIFT — Gamete Intra-Fallopian Transfer, an assisted reproductive technology designed to achieve pregnancy, the exact opposite of a contraceptive.
✓Final answerThe correct option is (B) Vasectomy — the male sterilisation in which the vas deferens is cut or tied.
ANSWER: B
- KCET 2024Set B-41 markMCQQ.Find the incorrect statement among the following: (A) In sex linked recessive traits the gene is transmitted from unaffected carrier female to some of male progeny (B) Accumulation of phenylpyruvic acid in brain results in mental retardation (C) Individuals affected by Down’s Syndrome will have congenital heart defect and are more intelligent (D) Turner’s Syndrome is caused due to the absence of one X-chromosome
›Reveal solutionSolution
Down's syndrome causes mental retardation — so the claim that such individuals are "more intelligent" is the incorrect statement.
Step 1 — Evaluate (A): sex-linked recessive inheritance
"In sex-linked recessive traits the gene is transmitted from unaffected carrier female to some of male progeny."
For an X-linked recessive (e.g. haemophilia, colour blindness): a carrier female is XAXa — she is unaffected because her normal allele masks the defective one. Her sons receive either XA or Xa, and a son who gets Xa has no second X to mask it, so he is affected.
XAXa×XAY⟶21 sons XAY (normal),21 sons XaY (affected)
TRUE.
Step 2 — Evaluate (B): phenylketonuria
"Accumulation of phenylpyruvic acid in brain results in mental retardation."
PKU is an inborn error of metabolism: the enzyme that converts phenylalanine → tyrosine is missing. Phenylalanine therefore accumulates and is converted into phenylpyruvic acid and other derivatives, which accumulate in the brain and cause mental retardation (the excess is also excreted in urine, because renal reabsorption is poor). TRUE.
Step 3 — Evaluate (C): Down's syndrome — the false one
Down's syndrome arises from trisomy of chromosome 21 (2n=47; an extra copy of chromosome 21, usually from non-disjunction). The affected individual is:
- short statured, with a small round head, furrowed tongue and partially open mouth,
- palm broad with characteristic palm crease,
- physical, psychomotor and mental development retarded — i.e. mentally retarded,
- often with congenital heart disease.
So the first half of the statement (congenital heart defect) is right, but "and are more intelligent" is flatly false — the syndrome is defined in part by mental retardation. This is the incorrect statement → the answer.
Step 4 — Evaluate (D): Turner's syndrome
"Turner's Syndrome is caused due to the absence of one X-chromosome."
Turner's syndrome is 45, XO — a female missing one X (2n=45, i.e. 44+XO). Such females are sterile, with rudimentary ovaries and lack of other secondary sexual characters. TRUE.
Step 5 — Conclude
Three statements are true; the one that is incorrect is (C).
✓Final answerThe correct option is (C) Individuals affected by Down's Syndrome will have congenital heart defect and are more intelligent — this is the incorrect statement, as Down's syndrome involves mental retardation.
ANSWER: C
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