Q.∫0πxlogsinxdx
🔒You're viewing a preview — the full solution, concept, methods & PYQ mapping are locked.
🔒 Start your 14-day free trial to unlock the full solution →Concept understanding — King Property of Definite Integrals
The King Property of Definite Integrals
Walk a path from a to b measuring something at each step; now walk it backwards from b to a. The King Property says the total is unchanged — provided you also reverse how you measure. It is one of the most useful shortcuts for definite integrals.
∫abf(x)dx=∫abf(a+b−x)dx
The limits stay a to b; only the argument changes, x→a+b−x.
Where it comes from
Substitute t=a+b−x, so dx=−dt; when x=a, t=b and when x=b, t=a:
∫abf(x)dx=∫baf(a+b−t)(−dt)=∫abf(a+b−t)dt.
Renaming t back to x gives the result. So it is not a trick — just substitution.
Why it helps
Adding the original integral to its "mirror" often collapses the integrand. For instance, with I=∫0π/2sinx+cosxsinxdx, the property replaces sinx by cosx (since sin(2π−x)=cosx). Adding the two forms:
2I=∫0π/2sinx+cosxsinx+cosxdx=2π,I=4π.
Reach for it when the integrand has sinx,cosx,tanx over [0,π/2] or [0,π] and f(a+b−x) simplifies. If the swapped form is no easier, it will not help.
The limits do not change — only the function's argument does. …
The key idea is to use the property of definite integrals with the substitution x→π−x, exploiting the symmetry of sinx over [0,π].
Let I=∫0πxlogsinxdx.
Substitute x=π−t, so dx=−dt. When x=0, t=π; when x=π, t=0. Then:
I=∫π0(π−t)logsin(π−t)(−dt)=∫0π(π−t)logsintdt.
Since sin(π−t)=sint, and renaming t back to x, we have:
I=∫0π(π−x)logsinxdx.
Add the two expressions for I:
2I=∫0π[x+(π−x)]logsinxdx=π∫0πlogsinxdx. …
Using the property ∫0af(x)dx=∫0af(a−x)dx on [0,π], we add the two forms to get 2I=π∫0πlogsinxdx. The known result ∫0πlogsinxdx=−πlog2 then gives I=−2π2log2.
The problem asks for I=∫0πxlogsinxdx. The presence of x multiplied by a function symmetric about π/2 suggests using the symmetry property of definite integrals. For any function f(x) integrable on [0,a], we have ∫0af(x)dx=∫0af(a−x)dx. Here a=π, so we can replace x by π−x in the integral.
Let’s work through it step by step.
- Apply the substitution x→π−x. Let I=∫0πxlogsinxdx. Using x=π−t, when x=0, t=π; when x=π, t=0. The integral becomes
I=∫π0(π−t)logsin(π−t)(−dt)=∫0π(π−t)logsintdt.
Since sin(π−t)=sint, we have
I=∫0π(π−x)logsinxdx.
- Add the two expressions for I. We now have two forms:
I=∫0πxlogsinxdxandI=∫0π(π−x)logsinxdx.
Adding them:
2I=∫0π[x+(π−x)]logsinxdx=∫0ππlogsinxdx.
So
2I=π∫0πlogsinxdx.
- Evaluate J=∫0πlogsinxdx. This is a classic integral. Use symmetry again:
J=∫0πlogsinxdx=2∫0π/2logsinxdx,
because sinx is symmetric about π/2 on [0,π].
Now consider K=∫0π/2logsinxdx. A standard trick: substitute x→π/2−x to get K=∫0π/2logcosxdx. Adding:
2K=∫0π/2log(sinxcosx)dx=∫0π/2log(2sin2x)dx.
So
2K=∫0π/2logsin2xdx−2πlog2.
Let u=2x, then dx=du/2, limits 0 to π: …
Method: King property with a symmetric log integrand
For ∫0axf(x)dx where f(a−x)=f(x), the property ∫0af(x)dx=∫0af(a−x)dx removes the x; a known "log-sine" value finishes it.
Steps
Step 1: Reflect and add.
I=∫0axf(x)dx=∫0a(a−x)f(x)dx, so 2I=a∫0af(x)dx.
Step 2: Reduce the log-sine integral. …
Common Mistakes
Mistake 1: Not knowing (or deriving) ∫0πlogsinxdx=−πlog2.
Why it's wrong: without this value the problem cannot be finished. Correct approach: quote it, or derive it via the sin2x=2sinxcosx doubling identity.
Mistake 2: Sign confusion under x→π−x. …
[!FORMULA] ∫02πsinx+cosx3sinx+4cosxdx=
- COMEDK 2026Set 2026-A1 markMCQQ.
[!FORMULA] ∫02πsinx+cosx3sinx+4cosxdx=
(A) 4π (B) 47π (C) π (D) 27π›Reveal solutionSolution
The integral simplifies by splitting the numerator into a linear combination of the denominator and its derivative, leading to a sum of a constant and a logarithmic term; the final value is 47π, so the correct option is (B).
The key idea is that when you have an integrand of the form csinx+dcosxasinx+bcosx, you can often rewrite the numerator as A(denominator)+B(derivative of denominator). This works because the derivative of sinx+cosx is cosx−sinx, and any linear combination of sinx and cosx can be expressed as a combination of these two. Once you do that, the integral splits into a simple constant term and a logarithmic term that often vanishes over symmetric limits.
- Set up the decomposition We want constants A and B such that
3sinx+4cosx=A(sinx+cosx)+B(cosx−sinx).
Expanding the right side:
Asinx+Acosx+Bcosx−Bsinx=(A−B)sinx+(A+B)cosx.
Matching coefficients with 3sinx+4cosx gives the system:
{A−B=3A+B=4
Adding the equations: 2A=7⇒A=27.
Subtracting: 2B=1⇒B=21.
- Rewrite the integral The integrand becomes:
sinx+cosx3sinx+4cosx=sinx+cosx27(sinx+cosx)+21(cosx−sinx)=27+21⋅sinx+cosxcosx−sinx.
So the integral is:
I=∫0π/227dx+21∫0π/2sinx+cosxcosx−sinxdx.
- Evaluate the first part
∫0π/227dx=27⋅2π=47π.
- Evaluate the second part Notice that the numerator cosx−sinx is exactly the derivative of the denominator sinx+cosx. So let u=sinx+cosx, then du=(cosx−sinx)dx. When x=0, u=sin0+cos0=1. …
- COMEDK 2025Set 2025-A1 markMCQQ.0∫2πlog(5+4cosx5+4sinx)dx= (A) 0 (B) 2 (C) −2 (D) 43
›Reveal solutionSolution
The integral evaluates to zero because the integrand is an odd function under the substitution x→2π−x, making the integral over a symmetric interval vanish.
We are asked to compute
I=∫0π/2log(5+4cosx5+4sinx)dx.
Concept and intuition:
When an integral over a symmetric interval (here [0,π/2] is symmetric about π/4) contains a function that changes sign under a reflection of the variable, the integral often cancels to zero. Specifically, if we let x→2π−x, then sinx becomes cosx and vice versa. This swaps the numerator and denominator inside the log, flipping the sign of the integrand. Over the same interval, the positive and negative contributions exactly cancel.
Let’s verify this step by step.
- Apply the substitution x→2π−x. Let t=2π−x. Then dx=−dt, and when x=0, t=2π; when x=2π, t=0. So
I=∫π/20log(5+4cos(2π−t)5+4sin(2π−t))(−dt)=∫0π/2log(5+4sint5+4cost)dt.
- Simplify the logarithm. Notice that
log(5+4sint5+4cost)=−log(5+4cost5+4sint).
Therefore,
I=∫0π/2−log(5+4cost5+4sint)dt=−I.
- Solve for I. The equation I=−I implies 2I=0, so I=0. …
- COMEDK 2025Set 2025-M1 markMCQQ.∫0πecosx+e−cosxecosxdx is equal to (A) π (B) 2π (C) 4π (D) 2π
›Reveal solutionSolution
The integral simplifies by using the symmetry property f(x)+f(π−x)=1, leading to the result 2π.
Concept & Intuition
When an integrand looks messy but involves a function of cosx, a classic trick is to exploit the symmetry cos(π−x)=−cosx. This often turns the integral into something like ∫0π21dx, because the sum of the integrand at x and at π−x simplifies to a constant. Here, the denominator ecosx+e−cosx is symmetric in a way that makes this work perfectly.
Step-by-step solution
- Define the integral Let
I=∫0πecosx+e−cosxecosxdx.
- Use the substitution x→π−x Replace x by π−x. Then dx becomes −dx, but the limits swap: when x=0, π−x=π; when x=π, π−x=0. So
I=∫π0ecos(π−x)+e−cos(π−x)ecos(π−x)(−dx)=∫0πecos(π−x)+e−cos(π−x)ecos(π−x)dx.
- Simplify using cos(π−x)=−cosx Then ecos(π−x)=e−cosx and e−cos(π−x)=ecosx. Hence
I=∫0πe−cosx+ecosxe−cosxdx.
- Add the two expressions for I We have
I=∫0πecosx+e−cosxecosxdxandI=∫0πe−cosx+ecosxe−cosxdx.
Adding them:
- KCET 2021Set A-11 markMCQQ.The value of ∫04042x+4042−xxdx is equal to (A) 4042 (B) 2021 (C) 8084 (D) 1010
›Reveal solutionSolution
Apply the "king property" ∫0af(x)dx=∫0af(a−x)dx; adding the two copies makes the integrand identically 1, so the integral is half the interval length.
Step 1 — Name the integral and state the property
Let a=4042 and
I=∫0ax+a−xxdx(1)
The king property of definite integrals says
∫0af(x)dx=∫0af(a−x)dx
(It follows from the substitution u=a−x: the limits swap, and dx=−du restores the orientation. It is the standard weapon whenever the integrand shows a symmetric pairing like x against a−x — as here.)
Step 2 — Write the reflected copy
Replace x→a−x in the integrand. Then x→a−x and a−x→x:
I=∫0aa−x+xa−xdx(2)
The denominator is unchanged (it is symmetric), and only the numerator has flipped. That is exactly why this trick works.
Step 3 — Add (1) and (2) …
🎓Unlock everything free for 14 days
- ✓Full step-by-step solutions
- ✓Concept-first explanations
- ✓Methods, shortcuts & mistakes
- ✓PYQ mapping + timed mock tests
Full access for 14 days. No credit card required.