Q.Prove that tan−1(1+x2−1−x21+x2+1−x2)=4π+21cos−1x2.
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Inverse Tangent Identities
The inverse tangent function obeys a family of addition and doubling identities that let you combine two arctangents into one. They come straight from the tangent addition formula, but they carry conditions you must respect.
The core addition identity
Start from tan(A+B)=1−tanAtanBtanA+tanB. Put A=tan−1x and B=tan−1y, so tanA=x and tanB=y. Then
tan−1x+tan−1y=tan−1(1−xyx+y),xy<1.
The restriction xy<1 keeps the combined angle inside the principal range (−π/2,π/2).
If xy>1 the raw formula lands in the wrong branch, so you must correct it:
tan−1x+tan−1y=π+tan−1(1−xyx+y) (x,y>0),
and −π+tan−1(⋅) when x,y<0. Ignoring this is the classic exam slip.
Subtraction
Replacing y with −y gives
tan−1x−tan−1y=tan−1(1+xyx−y),xy>−1.
The doubling identity
Set y=x in the addition formula:
2tan−1x=tan−1(1−x22x),−1<x<1.
The same angle can also be rewritten through sine and cosine, which is handy in integration and in proofs -- but each alternate form only matches 2tan−1x on part of its domain, so the two forms carry different conditions:
2tan−1x=sin−1(1+x22x),−1≤x≤1,
2tan−1x=cos−1(1+x21−x2),x≥0.
The cos−1 form needs x≥0 -- it fails for negative x. Check x=−1: 2tan−1(−1)=2(−4π)=−2π, but cos−1(1+11−1)=cos−1(0)=2π, the wrong sign entirely. The sin−1 form has no such restriction because sin−1 (unlike cos−1) can return a negative angle.
The complementary identity
For every real x,
tan−1x+cot−1x=2π.
This holds without restriction because tan−1 and cot−1 of the same value are complementary angles. …
Substitute x2=cos2θ (valid since ∣x∣≤1⇒x2∈[0,1]), which gives 2θ∈[0,2π], so θ∈[0,4π] and cosθ,sinθ≥0.
Using 1+cos2θ=2cos2θ and 1−cos2θ=2sin2θ:
1+x2=2cosθ,1−x2=2sinθ.
So the fraction becomes
2cosθ−2sinθ2cosθ+2sinθ=cosθ−sinθcosθ+sinθ=1−tanθ1+tanθ=tan(4π+θ). …
The substitution x2=cos2θ collapses the square roots into 2cosθ and 2sinθ; the fraction becomes tan(4π+θ), and since 4π+θ stays in the arctan principal range, the identity equals 4π+21cos−1x2.
The idea
The expression is defined only when both 1+x2 and 1−x2 are non-negative, i.e. ∣x∣≤1, so x2∈[0,1]. Seeing 1±x2 with x2 over [0,1] suggests writing x2=cos2θ; then the half-angle identities dissolve the roots.
Step 1 — Substitute
Let x2=cos2θ. Since x2∈[0,1], we have cos2θ∈[0,1], so 2θ∈[0,2π] and θ∈[0,4π]. On this interval cosθ≥0 and sinθ≥0.
Step 2 — Kill the square roots
Using 1+cos2θ=2cos2θ and 1−cos2θ=2sin2θ,
1+x2=2cos2θ=2cosθ,1−x2=2sin2θ=2sinθ,
the absolute values dropping because both cosθ,sinθ are non-negative here.
Step 3 — Simplify the fraction
1+x2−1−x21+x2+1−x2=2cosθ−2sinθ2cosθ+2sinθ=cosθ−sinθcosθ+sinθ.
Divide top and bottom by cosθ:
1−tanθ1+tanθ=1−tan4πtanθtan4π+tanθ=tan(4π+θ).
Step 4 — Take the inverse tangent (range check) …
Method: The x2=cos2θ substitution for 1±x2 expressions
Whenever an inverse-trig expression contains both 1+x2 and 1−x2 (with ∣x∣≤1), a cos2θ substitution turns the square roots into single trig terms.
Steps
Step 1: Substitute and fix the range.
Since ∣x∣≤1 gives x2∈[0,1], set x2=cos2θ; then 2θ∈[0,2π], so θ∈[0,4π] and cosθ,sinθ≥0.
Step 2: Remove the roots with half-angle identities.
1+cos2θ=2cos2θ,1−cos2θ=2sin2θ ⇒ 1+x2=2cosθ, 1−x2=2sinθ,
the absolute values dropping because both are non-negative on this θ-interval.
Step 3: Simplify to a single tangent. …
Common Mistakes
Mistake 1: Choosing the substitution x=cos2θ instead of x2=cos2θ.
Why it's wrong: the roots contain 1±x2, so it is x2 (which lies in [0,1]) that should equal cos2θ; using x mismatches the half-angle step. Correct approach: set x2=cos2θ, giving θ∈[0,4π].
Mistake 2: Dropping the absolute values carelessly when simplifying the roots.
Why it's wrong: 2cos2θ=2∣cosθ∣; the modulus can only be removed after confirming the sign. Correct approach: because θ∈[0,4π] both cosθ,sinθ≥0, so the roots become 2cosθ and 2sinθ. …
- KCET 2023Set A-21 markMCQQ.The value of cot−11−sinx−1+sinx1−sinx+1+sinx where x∈(0,4π) is (A) 2x−π (B) π−3x (C) π−2x (D) 2x
›Reveal solutionSolution
The expression simplifies to cot−1(−cot2x), and for x∈(0,π/4) the principal value branch gives π−2x.
The key here is to simplify the messy fraction inside the inverse cotangent by rewriting 1±sinx in a more manageable form. When you see 1±sinx, think of the identity sinx=2sin2xcos2x and the perfect square (sin2x±cos2x)2=1±sinx. That’s the whole trick — once you recognise the squares, the square roots become absolute values, and the range of x tells you which sign to take.
Let’s walk through it.
- Rewrite the square roots. Since sinx=2sin2xcos2x, we have
1±sinx=sin22x+cos22x±2sin2xcos2x=(sin2x±cos2x)2.
Therefore
1±sinx=sin2x±cos2x.
-
Determine the signs using the given interval.
For x∈(0,π/4), we have 2x∈(0,π/8). In this range, sin2x>0 and cos2x>0, and importantly cos2x>sin2x (since tan2x<1).
Hence:
- sin2x+cos2x>0, so sin2x+cos2x=sin2x+cos2x.
- sin2x−cos2x<0, so sin2x−cos2x=cos2x−sin2x.
-
Substitute into the fraction.
The numerator becomes
1−sinx+1+sinx=(cos2x−sin2x)+(sin2x+cos2x)=2cos2x.
The denominator becomes
1−sinx−1+sinx=(cos2x−sin2x)−(sin2x+cos2x)=−2sin2x.
So the fraction inside the inverse cotangent is
−2sin2x2cos2x=−cot2x.
- Now the problem reduces to
cot−1(−cot2x).
Recall the identity: cot−1(−t)=π−cot−1(t) for t>0 (this holds because the principal value branch of cot−1 is (0,π)). …
- COMEDK 2024Set 2024-M1 markMCQQ.
[!FORMULA] If y=tan−1(1+6x3−2x) then dxdy is
(A) 1+4x22 (B) −1+4x24 (C) −1+4x22 (D) 1+4x21›Reveal solutionSolution
The key is to rewrite the argument of the inverse tangent using the formula for tan−1a−tan−1b, simplifying the expression to a constant minus a simple inverse tangent, then differentiating easily. The derivative is −1+4x22, so the correct option is (C).
Concept & Intuition
When you see an inverse tangent of a rational function like 1+6x3−2x, your first instinct might be to use the quotient rule inside the chain rule — messy and error-prone. Instead, notice the structure: it looks exactly like the formula for tan−1A−tan−1B because
tan−1A−tan−1B=tan−1(1+ABA−B).
Here, if we set A=3 and B=2x, then
1+ABA−B=1+3⋅2x3−2x=1+6x3−2x,
which matches perfectly. This trick turns a complicated derivative into a trivial one.
Step-by-step solution
- Recognize the pattern We have y=tan−1(1+6x3−2x). Compare with the identity:
tan−1a−tan−1b=tan−1(1+aba−b).
Choose a=3 and b=2x. Then
1+aba−b=1+3⋅2x3−2x=1+6x3−2x.
So we can write:
y=tan−13−tan−1(2x).
- Differentiate term by term The derivative of tan−13 is zero because it’s a constant. The derivative of tan−1(2x) is given by the chain rule:
- COMEDK 2025Set 2025-M1 markMCQQ.The range of x for which the equation sin−1(1+x22x)=2tan−1x holds true (A) ∣x∣≤1 (B) ∀x∈R (C) x≥0 (D) ∣x∣≥1
›Reveal solutionSolution
Put x=tanθ: the equation becomes sin−1(sin2θ)=2θ, which is true only when 2θ∈[−2π,2π], i.e. ∣x∣≤1. The correct option is (A).
The identity comes from the double-angle relation 1+tan2θ2tanθ=sin2θ, but sin−1 only returns its principal value in [−2π,2π], so the equality holds only on a restricted range.
- Substitute x=tanθ, with θ=tan−1x∈(−2π,2π).
1+x22x=1+tan2θ2tanθ=sin2θ.
So the left side is sin−1(sin2θ) and the equation reads sin−1(sin2θ)=2θ.
- Apply the range condition. sin−1(siny)=y holds exactly when y∈[−2π,2π]. Here y=2θ=2tan−1x, so we need
−2π≤2tan−1x≤2π⟹−4π≤tan−1x≤4π.
- Solve for x. Since tan−1 is increasing, …
- KCET 2018Set A-11 markMCQQ.If sin−1x+cos−1y=52π, then cos−1x+sin−1y is (A) 52π (B) 53π (C) 54π (D) 103π
›Reveal solutionSolution
Use the identity sin−1t+cos−1t=2π for any t∈[−1,1]. Adding the given equation to the target expression and simplifying yields the result 53π.
The core idea here is the complementary relationship between inverse sine and inverse cosine. For any number t in [−1,1], we have
sin−1t+cos−1t=2π.
This is because sinθ=t and cos(2π−θ)=t — they are complementary angles.
The problem gives us one sum involving these functions with different arguments (x and y), and asks for another sum with the arguments swapped. The natural move is to add the two expressions together and see what cancels.
Let’s denote:
S1=sin−1x+cos−1y=52π
and
S2=cos−1x+sin−1y.
We want S2.
- Add S1 and S2:
S1+S2=(sin−1x+cos−1y)+(cos−1x+sin−1y)
Rearranging:
S1+S2=(sin−1x+cos−1x)+(sin−1y+cos−1y)
- Apply the complementary identity to each pair:
sin−1x+cos−1x=2π,sin−1y+cos−1y=2π
So:
S1+S2=2π+2π=π
- Substitute the known value of S1:
52π+S2=π
Therefore:
S2=π−52π=55π−2π=53π …
- KCET 2019Set A-11 markMCQQ.If a+2π<2tan−1x+3cot−1x<b then 'a' and 'b' are respectively. (A) 0 and π (B) 2π and 2π (C) 0 and 2π (D) 2−π and 2π
›Reveal solutionSolution
Use tan−1x+cot−1x=2π to reduce the expression to π+cot−1x, then use the range of cot−1.
Step 1 — The identity that unlocks it.
For all x∈R (principal branches):
tan−1x+cot−1x=2π
Step 2 — Split the expression to expose that identity.
2tan−1x+3cot−1x=2(tan−1x+cot−1x)+cot−1x=2⋅2π+cot−1x
⇒2tan−1x+3cot−1x=π+cot−1x
This is the whole trick: pair the inverse functions off so only one of them survives, and its range is then easy to state.
Step 3 — Use the principal range of cot−1.
For every real x,
cot−1x∈(0,π)(open at both ends: it never attains 0 or π)
Step 4 — Bound the expression.
Adding π throughout,
π+0<π+cot−1x<π+π
⇒π<2tan−1x+3cot−1x<2π
Step 5 — Match with the given inequality.
We are told
a+2π<2tan−1x+3cot−1x<b …
- KCET 2026Set UNKNOWN1 markMCQQ.tan−1(1+1⋅21)+tan−1(1+2⋅31)+⋯+tan−1(1+n⋅(n+1)1)= (A) tan−1(n+2n) (B) tan−1(nn+1) (C) tan−1(n+1n) (D) tan−1(nn+2)
›Reveal solutionSolution
Rewrite each general term using the identity tan−1(k+1)−tan−1(k)=tan−1(1+k(k+1)1) so the series telescopes.
Step 1 — Rewrite the general term
For the k-th term of the series,
tan−1(1+k(k+1)1)=tan−1(1+k(k+1)(k+1)−k).
This matches the subtraction formula
tan−1A−tan−1B=tan−1(1+ABA−B),
with A=k+1 and B=k. Hence
tan−1(1+k(k+1)1)=tan−1(k+1)−tan−1(k).
Step 2 — Telescope the sum
Summing from k=1 to k=n:
∑k=1n[tan−1(k+1)−tan−1(k)]=tan−1(n+1)−tan−1(1), …
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