Q.Let A be the set of all 50 students of Class X in a school. Let f:A→N be function defined by f(x)= roll number of the student x. Show that f is one-one but not onto.
Concept understanding — One One Function
One-One (Injective) Function
Think of taking attendance by unique roll numbers: call a number and exactly one student responds — never two sharing a number. That is a one-one function: different inputs always land on different outputs.
The idea
A function is a machine turning inputs into outputs. It is one-one (or injective) if it never reuses an output — two different inputs can never produce the same result.
- f(x)=x+1 is one-one: if x1=x2 then x1+1=x2+1.
- g(x)=x2 on R is not one-one, because g(2)=g(−2)=4.
Precise definition
f:A→B is one-one if for all x1,x2∈A,
x1=x2⟹f(x1)=f(x2).
The contrapositive is usually easier in proofs:
f(x1)=f(x2)⟹x1=x2.
"If the outputs are equal, the inputs must have been equal."
How to check
- Horizontal line test (graphs): if any horizontal line meets the graph more than once, the function is not one-one, because that line marks one output shared by several inputs.
- Algebraic test: assume f(x1)=f(x2) and try to deduce x1=x2; succeed and it is one-one, find a counterexample and it is not.
A strictly increasing or strictly decreasing function is automatically one-one. So a decreasing function like f(x)=−x is one-one too — being one-one is about no repeated outputs, not about going up.
Why it matters
Injectivity is what lets a function be reversed: if no output is repeated, each output points back to a single input. This is the first requirement for an inverse — a function must be one-one and onto for its inverse to be a function.
Checking whether a function is one-one (injective), using either the horizontal line test or the algebraic f(x₁) = f(x₂) approach shown here, is a staple question type in the CBSE Class 12 Relations and Functions chapter. "How to check if a function is one-one class 12" is a frequently searched topic, and this same reasoning is tested regularly in JEE Main function-based questions.
Concept: One-one (injective) function — each element of the domain maps to a distinct element of the codomain.
Step 1 – One-one:
If two students x1,x2∈A have the same roll number, then f(x1)=f(x2). But roll numbers are unique in a class, so x1=x2. Hence f is one-one.
Step 2 – Not onto:
The codomain is N, which is infinite. The range of f is the set of 50 distinct roll numbers (a finite subset of N). Since N has infinitely many elements not in this range, f is not onto.
The function f is one-one because distinct students have distinct roll numbers, but not onto because its range is a finite subset of N.
The function f assigns each student a unique roll number, so it is one-one (injective). Since the codomain N is infinite but only 50 roll numbers are used, f is not onto (surjective).
Why This Approach Works
The key to this problem is understanding what "one-one" and "onto" actually mean in a real-world context. A function is one-one if different inputs always give different outputs — no two students share the same roll number. It is onto if every possible natural number is actually assigned to some student — which is impossible here because there are only 50 students but infinitely many natural numbers.
Rather than getting lost in abstract notation, think of it this way: the function f is just a labelling rule. The question asks whether that rule satisfies two properties. We check each property by looking at what the rule does, not by manipulating symbols.
Step-by-Step Reasoning
1. Understanding the domain and codomain
The domain A is the set of 50 students. The codomain is N={1,2,3,…}, the set of all natural numbers. The function f(x) gives the roll number of student x.
In Indian schools, roll numbers are usually distinct positive integers assigned to each student in a class. No two students share the same roll number.
2. Checking one-one (injective) property
A function f:A→N is one-one if:
f(x1)=f(x2)⟹x1=x2
Equivalently: different students must have different roll numbers.
Since each student has a unique roll number, if f(x1)=f(x2), then the roll numbers are the same, which can only happen if x1 and x2 are the same student. Therefore, f is one-one.
You don't need to know the actual roll numbers — the fact that roll numbers are unique by design is enough. The property follows from the definition of a roll number system.
3. Checking onto (surjective) property
A function f:A→N is onto if every natural number n∈N has some student x∈A such that f(x)=n.
Here, only 50 roll numbers are used (one per student). But N has infinitely many numbers. For example, the number 51 is a natural number, but no student has roll number 51 (since there are only 50 students). So f is not onto.
A common mistake is to think "onto" means every roll number from 1 to 50 is used. That's not correct — onto means every natural number (1, 2, 3, ...) must appear as a roll number, which is impossible with only 50 students.
4. Formal justification
Let the set of roll numbers actually assigned be R={f(x):x∈A}. Since A has 50 elements, R has at most 50 elements. But N is infinite. So N∖R is non-empty — pick any n∈N∖R; there is no student with roll number n. Hence f is not onto.
For a finite domain A and infinite codomain N, no function f:A→N can be onto. The image set is always finite, while the codomain is infinite.
The function f is one-one because each student has a unique roll number, but it is not onto because only 50 natural numbers are used as roll numbers, leaving infinitely many natural numbers unassigned.
Method: Proving a map is one-one but not onto
Use this when the domain injects naturally into a much larger codomain (e.g. a finite set into N, or a labelling by a unique identifier).
Steps
Step 1: Prove one-one (injective)
Assume f(x1)=f(x2) and deduce x1=x2. When outputs are unique identifiers (like distinct roll numbers), equal outputs force equal inputs — that is exactly injectivity.
Step 2: Prove not onto (not surjective)
Onto requires every element of the codomain to be an output. Exhibit at least one codomain element with no preimage. A clean general argument: if the domain is finite, its range is a finite set, so it cannot cover an infinite codomain like N — infinitely many targets are missed.
Step 3: State the verdict
Injective yes, surjective no. The key idea to carry to any such problem: "onto" is about covering the whole declared codomain, not merely the values the rule happens to produce.
Common Mistakes
Mistake 1: Thinking "onto" means the used roll numbers 1–50 are covered
Why it's wrong: onto requires every natural number to be a roll number, but the codomain N is infinite while only 50 values are used, so numbers like 51 have no preimage. Correct approach: onto is judged against the whole declared codomain N, so f is not onto.
Mistake 2: Trying to prove injectivity by computing specific roll numbers
Why it's wrong: the actual numbers are unknown and unnecessary. Correct approach: use that roll numbers are unique by design — f(x1)=f(x2) means the two students share a roll number, which forces x1=x2.
- KCET 2025Set A-11 markMCQQ.Let the functions “f” and “g” be f:[0,2π]→R given by f(x)=sinx and g:[0,2π]→R given by g(x)=cosx, where R is the set of real numbers Consider the following statements: Statement (I): f and g are one-one Statement (II): f + g is one-one Which of the following is correct? (A) Statement (I) is true, statement (II) is false (B) Statement (I) is false, statement (II) is true (C) Both statements (I) and (II) are true (D) Both statements (I) and (II) are false
›Reveal solutionSolution
Both sin and cos are strictly monotonic on [0,π/2] (hence one-one), but their sum is not — a single counterexample kills Statement II.
Step 1 — Statement (I): is f(x)=sinx one-one on [0,π/2]?
f′(x)=cosx>0for x∈(0,2π),
so f is strictly increasing on [0,π/2], and a strictly monotonic function is injective. ✓
Is g(x)=cosx one-one on [0,π/2]?
g′(x)=−sinx<0for x∈(0,2π),
so g is strictly decreasing, hence also injective. ✓
Statement (I) is TRUE.
Step 2 — Statement (II): is f+g one-one? Write
(f+g)(x)=sinx+cosx=2sin(x+4π).
As x runs over [0,π/2], the argument x+π/4 runs over [4π,43π] — an interval that straddles π/2, where sin peaks. So f+g rises to 2 at x=π/4 and then falls: it is not monotonic.
Step 3 — Explicit counterexample.
(f+g)(0)=sin0+cos0=0+1=1,
(f+g)(2π)=sin2π+cos2π=1+0=1.
Two different inputs, the same output ⇒ f+g is not one-one. Statement (II) is FALSE.
Step 4 — Moral. The sum of two one-one functions need not be one-one; injectivity is not preserved under addition.
✓Final answerThe correct option is (A) — Statement (I) is true, statement (II) is false.
ANSWER: A
- COMEDK 2024Set 2024-A1 markMCQQ.
[!FORMULA] Which of the following function is injective?
(A) f(x)=x2+2,x∈(−∞,∞) (B) f(x)=∣x+2∣,x∈[−2,∞) (C) f(x)=4+3x−5x24x2+3x−5,x∈(−∞,∞) (D) f(x)=(x−4)(x−5),x∈(−∞,∞)›Reveal solutionSolution
A function is injective (one-to-one) if every horizontal line hits its graph at most once.
After checking each option, only option (B) passes the test.
Concept & Intuition
Injectivity means: if f(a)=f(b) then a=b. Equivalently, no two different inputs give the same output. For polynomials and rational functions, a quick way is to check whether the function is strictly monotonic (always increasing or always decreasing) on its domain — if it is, it’s injective. If it has a turning point (a local max or min), it fails because the horizontal line through that extremum will hit twice. Absolute value functions often have a V-shape, so they can be injective if we restrict to one side of the vertex.
Step-by-step reasoning
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Option (A): f(x)=x2+2 on R.
This is a parabola opening upward, with vertex at x=0. It decreases on (−∞,0] and increases on [0,∞).
For example, f(−1)=3 and f(1)=3 — two different inputs give the same output.
Hence not injective.
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Option (B): f(x)=∣x+2∣ on [−2,∞).
The absolute value function ∣x+2∣ has its vertex at x=−2. On the given domain [−2,∞), we are on the right half of the V-shape, where x+2≥0, so f(x)=x+2.
That’s a straight line with slope 1 — strictly increasing.
Therefore, if f(a)=f(b) then a+2=b+2 so a=b.
This is injective.
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Option (C): f(x)=4+3x−5x24x2+3x−5 on R.
A rational function like this can be messy, but we can test simple values.
At x=0: f(0)=4−5=−1.25.
At x=1: numerator 4+3−5=2, denominator 4+3−5=2, so f(1)=1.
At x=−1: numerator 4−3−5=−4, denominator 4−3−5=−4, so f(−1)=1.
So f(1)=f(−1)=1 with 1=−1.
Hence not injective.
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Option (D): f(x)=(x−4)(x−5)=x2−9x+20 on R.
This is a parabola opening upward, vertex at x=4.5.
For instance, f(4)=0 and f(5)=0 — two different inputs give the same output.
Hence not injective.
Watch outA common mistake is to think that any absolute value function is automatically non-injective. But if the domain is restricted to one side of the vertex, it becomes strictly monotonic and thus injective — as in option (B).
TipFor quadratics, check the vertex: if the domain includes points on both sides of the vertex, the function is not injective. For absolute values, check whether the domain lies entirely on one side of the “corner”.
✓Final answerThe correct option is (B).
ANSWER: B
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- KCET 2021Set A-11 markMCQQ.The function f(x)=3sin2x−cos2x+4 is one-one in the interval (A) [−6π,3π] (B) (6π,−3π) (C) [−2π,2π] (D) [−6π,−3π)
›Reveal solutionSolution
Write 3sin2x−cos2x as a single sine 2sin(2x−π/6), then demand that its argument stay inside one monotonic branch [−π/2,π/2].
Step 1 — Why we compress into one sine.
A sum asinθ+bcosθ is not obviously monotonic, but Rsin(θ−α) is: a sine increases steadily on any interval where its argument sweeps from −π/2 to π/2. So the whole question becomes "where does the argument live?"
Here a=3, b=−1, so
R=a2+b2=3+1=2.
Step 2 — Find the phase.
3sin2x−cos2x=2(23sin2x−21cos2x)=2(cos6πsin2x−sin6πcos2x)
and by sin(P−Q)=sinPcosQ−cosPsinQ,
f(x)=2sin(2x−6π)+4.
The +4 is a vertical shift; it changes no injectivity.
Step 3 — Impose one-one-ness.
sint is strictly increasing (hence one-one) for t∈[−2π,2π]. Put t=2x−6π:
−2π≤2x−6π≤2π.
Step 4 — Solve for x.
Add 6π:
−2π+6π≤2x≤2π+6π⟹−3π≤2x≤32π.
Divide by 2:
−6π≤x≤3π.
Step 5 — Check the other options.
(C) [−π/2,π/2] is too wide — at x=−π/6 and x=π/2 the argument is −π/2 and 5π/6, and sin has already turned back, so f repeats values. (B) and (D) are written with the left endpoint greater than the right, so they are not genuine intervals.
✓Final answerThe correct option is (A) — [−6π,3π].
ANSWER: A
- KCET 2022Set C-41 markMCQQ.Domain of cos−1[x] is, where [ ] denotes a greatest integer function (A) (−1,2) (B) [−1,2] (C) [−1,2) (D) (−1,2]
›Reveal solutionSolution
The domain of cos−1[x] is the set of all x for which the greatest integer [x] lies in [−1,1], which gives x∈[−1,2).
The key idea: the outer function cos−1(t) is defined only when its argument t is in [−1,1]. Here the argument is [x], the greatest integer less than or equal to x. So we need all x such that [x]∈[−1,1].
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Understand the greatest integer function [x]. It returns the largest integer not exceeding x. For example, [1.2]=1, [0.9]=0, [−0.3]=−1, [−1]=−1, [−1.2]=−2. It jumps at integer points.
-
Domain condition for cos−1: The inverse cosine function cos−1(t) is defined only for t∈[−1,1]. So we require [x]∈{−1,0,1}.
-
Find x such that [x]=−1: This happens when −1≤x<0. (Check: x=−1 gives [−1]=−1, included; x=−0.5 gives [−0.5]=−1; x=0 gives [0]=0, not −1.)
-
Find x such that [x]=0: This happens when 0≤x<1.
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Find x such that [x]=1: This happens when 1≤x<2.
-
Combine these intervals: The union is [−1,0)∪[0,1)∪[1,2)=[−1,2).
Watch outA common mistake is to include x=2 because [2]=2, but 2 is not in [−1,1], so cos−1(2) is undefined. Also, do not forget that x=−1 is included since [−1]=−1 is valid.
TipYou can think of it as: the greatest integer function "rounds down" to an integer, and we need that integer to be −1, 0, or 1. So x can go from −1 up to (but not including) 2.
✓Final answerThe domain is [−1,2), which corresponds to option (C).
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- KCET 2025Set A-11 markMCQQ.Match the following: In the following, [x] denotes the greatest integer less than or equal to x. Column – I(a) x∣x∣(b) ∣x∣(c) x+[x](d) ∣x−1∣+∣x+1∣ Column – II(i) continuous in (−1,1)(ii) differentiable in (−1,1)(iii) strictly increasing in (−1,1)(iv) not differentiable at, at least one point in (−1,1) (A)(1) a – i, b – ii, c – iv, d – iii (B)(2) a – iv, b – iii, c – i, d – ii (C)(3) a – ii, b – iv, c – iii, d – i (D)(4) a – iii, b – ii, c – iv, d – i
›Reveal solutionSolution
Check each of the four functions on the open interval (−1,1) for differentiability, cusps, monotonicity and continuity, then assign the one property from Column-II that singles it out.
Step 1 — (a) f(x)=x∣x∣.
f(x)={x2,−x2,x≥0x<0
Both one-sided derivatives at 0 are 0, so f′(x)=2∣x∣ exists for every x∈(−1,1). Hence x∣x∣ is differentiable in (−1,1) → (ii).
Step 2 — (b) f(x)=∣x∣.
For x>0, f′(x)=2x1→+∞ as x→0+; for x<0 it →−∞. The one-sided derivatives at x=0 are infinite and opposite — a cusp. So it is not differentiable at at least one point in (−1,1) → (iv).
Step 3 — (c) f(x)=x+[x].
On (−1,1), [x]=−1 for −1<x<0 and [x]=0 for 0≤x<1:
f(x)={x−1,x,−1<x<00≤x<1
It has a jump at x=0 (left limit −1, value 0), so it is not continuous — but on each piece it has slope 1 and the jump is upward, so x1<x2⇒f(x1)<f(x2). It is strictly increasing in (−1,1) → (iii).
Step 4 — (d) f(x)=∣x−1∣+∣x+1∣.
For −1<x<1 we have x−1<0 and x+1>0, so
f(x)=(1−x)+(x+1)=2.
A constant is continuous (and differentiable, but it is certainly not strictly increasing, and (ii) is already taken by (a)). The property that fits is continuous in (−1,1) → (i).
Step 5 — Assemble. a–ii, b–iv, c–iii, d–i.
✓Final answerThe correct option is (C) — a – ii, b – iv, c – iii, d – i.
ANSWER: C
- KCET 2024Set A-11 markMCQQ.The function xx ; x>0 is strictly increasing at (A) ∀x∈R (B) x<e1 (C) x>e1 (D) x<0
›Reveal solutionSolution
The function xx for x>0 is strictly increasing when its derivative is positive. Using logarithmic differentiation, we find the derivative is xx(1+logx), which is positive when 1+logx>0, i.e., x>1/e. So the correct interval is x>1/e.
The key idea is that to decide where xx increases, we need its derivative. But xx is not a simple power or exponential — it’s both. The trick is to take the natural logarithm first, differentiate implicitly, and then analyse the sign.
Why logarithmic differentiation?
For a function like f(x)=xx, the variable appears in both the base and the exponent. The standard differentiation rules (power rule, exponential rule) don’t apply directly. By writing logf(x)=xlogx, we turn it into a product, which we can differentiate easily. Then we multiply by f(x) to get f′(x).
Now let’s work through it step by step.
- Set up the function and take logs Let f(x)=xx, with x>0. Take natural logarithm of both sides:
logf(x)=log(xx)=xlogx.
- Differentiate implicitly Differentiate both sides with respect to x:
f(x)f′(x)=dxd(xlogx).
Using the product rule on the right:
dxd(xlogx)=1⋅logx+x⋅x1=logx+1.
So we have:
f(x)f′(x)=1+logx.
- Solve for f′(x) Multiply both sides by f(x)=xx:
f′(x)=xx(1+logx).
dxd(xx)=xx(1+logx),x>0.
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Analyse the sign of f′(x)
For x>0, xx is always positive. So the sign of f′(x) is entirely determined by the factor (1+logx).
- f′(x)>0 when 1+logx>0, i.e., logx>−1, which gives x>e−1=1/e.
- f′(x)<0 when 1+logx<0, i.e., x<1/e.
- f′(x)=0 when x=1/e (this is a critical point, where the function changes from decreasing to increasing).
Watch outA common mistake is to forget that xx>0 for x>0, so the sign of the derivative depends only on 1+logx. Also, note that x<0 is not in the domain given (x>0), so option (D) is irrelevant.
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Interpret the result
Strictly increasing means f′(x)>0. That happens exactly when x>1/e. So the function xx is strictly increasing on the interval (1/e,∞).
✓Final answerThe function xx is strictly increasing for x>e1, which corresponds to option (C).
- KCET 2023Set A-21 markMCQQ.Let f:R→R be defined by f(x)=3x2−5 and g:R→R by g(x)=x2+1x then gof is (A) 9x4−6x2+263x2−5 (B) x4+2x2−43x2 (C) 9x4+30x2−23x2 (D) 9x4−30x2+263x2−5
›Reveal solutionSolution
g∘f means g(f(x)) — substitute the whole of f(x) wherever x appears in g, then expand the square.
Step 1 — Order of composition.
(g∘f)(x)=g(f(x))
So f acts first. (A common slip is computing f(g(x)) instead.)
Step 2 — Substitute.
With g(u)=u2+1u and u=f(x)=3x2−5:
(g∘f)(x)=(3x2−5)2+13x2−5
Step 3 — Expand the denominator.
(3x2−5)2=9x4−2⋅3x2⋅5+25=9x4−30x2+25
(3x2−5)2+1=9x4−30x2+26
Step 4 — Final form.
(g∘f)(x)=9x4−30x2+263x2−5
Spot-check at x=0: f(0)=−5, g(−5)=25+1−5=−265; the formula gives 26−5 ✓.
✓Final answerThe correct option is (D) — 9x4−30x2+263x2−5.
ANSWER: D
- KCET 2020Set A-11 markMCQQ.If f(x)=x3−xx−ax−ba+xx2−xx−cb+xc+x0 then (A) f(1)=0 (B) f(2)=0 (C) f(0)=0 (D) f(−1)=0
›Reveal solutionSolution
At x=0 the determinant becomes a 3×3 skew-symmetric matrix, so f(0)=0; the answer is (C).
Solution
Substitute x=0 into the matrix:
f(0)=0−a−ba0−cbc0.
This matrix M satisfies MT=−M, i.e. it is skew-symmetric, and it is of odd order (3×3). For any skew-symmetric matrix,
det(M)=det(MT)=det(−M)=(−1)3det(M)=−det(M),
so 2det(M)=0 and hence det(M)=0. Therefore f(0)=0.
At x=1,−1,2 the matrix is not skew-symmetric (its off-diagonal entries are no longer negatives of one another), and the determinant does not vanish for general a,b,c. So only x=0 guarantees f(x)=0.
✓Final answerThe correct option is (C) f(0)=0.
- KCET 2023Set A-21 markMCQQ.If a curve passes through the point (1,1) and at any point (x,y) on the curve, the product of the slope of its tangent and x co-ordinate of the point is equal to the y co-ordinate of the point, then the curve also passes through the point (A) (3,0) (B) (−1,2) (C) (3,0) (D) (2,2)
›Reveal solutionSolution
Translate the word condition into xdxdy=y, separate the variables to get the family y=cx, fix c with the given point, then test the options.
Step 1 — Turn the sentence into an equation.
"The product of the slope of the tangent and the x-coordinate equals the y-coordinate":
slopedxdy⋅x=y⟹xdxdy=y
Step 2 — Separate the variables.
The equation is variables-separable (all y's on one side, all x's on the other):
ydy=xdx
Step 3 — Integrate.
∫ydy=∫xdx⟹log∣y∣=log∣x∣+log∣c∣⟹y=cx
So the general solution is the family of straight lines through the origin.
Step 4 — Use the initial condition (1,1).
1=c(1)⇒c=1⟹y=x
Step 5 — Test each option against y=x.
- (A) (3,0): 0=3 ✗
- (B) (−1,2): 2=−1 ✗
- (C) (3,0): 0=3 ✗
- (D) (2,2): 2=2 ✓
Step 6 — Verify the curve really satisfies the stated property. For y=x, the slope is 1 everywhere; at any point (x,y) the product slope ×x=1⋅x=x=y ✓.
✓Final answerThe correct option is (D) (2,2).
ANSWER: D
- KCET 2021Set A-11 markMCQQ.Consider the following statements: Statement 1: limx→1cx2+bx+aax2+bx+c is 1 (where a+b+c=0) Statement 2: limx→−2x1+x+22 is 41 (A) Only statement 2 is true (B) Only statement 1 is true (C) Both statements 1 and 2 are true (D) Both statements 1 and 2 are false
›Reveal solutionSolution
Statement 1 follows from direct substitution; Statement 2 involves a term that blows up at x=−2, so the limit does not exist.
Step 1 — Statement 1.
limx→1cx2+bx+aax2+bx+c
Both numerator and denominator are polynomials, hence continuous, so the limit is obtained by direct substitution provided the denominator does not vanish. At x=1:
numerator=a(1)+b(1)+c=a+b+c,
denominator=c(1)+b(1)+a=a+b+c.
The condition a+b+c=0 is exactly what guarantees the denominator is non-zero, so
limx→1cx2+bx+aax2+bx+c=a+b+ca+b+c=1.
Statement 1 is TRUE.
Step 2 — Statement 2.
limx→−2(x1+x+22)
As x→−2, the first term tends to the finite value −21=−21. But the second term has denominator x+2→0 while its numerator stays at 2, so
x+22→+∞ as x→−2+,x+22→−∞ as x→−2−.
The left- and right-hand limits are not equal (and neither is finite), so the limit does not exist — it is certainly not 41.
Statement 2 is FALSE.
Step 3 — Combine. Statement 1 true, Statement 2 false ⇒ "Only statement 1 is true".
✓Final answerThe correct option is (B) — Only statement 1 is true.
ANSWER: B
- KCET 2018Set A-11 markMCQQ.If (1+i1−i)96=a+ib then (a,b) is (A) (1, 1) (B) (1, 0) (C) (0, 1) (D) (0, -1)
›Reveal solutionSolution
Rationalise 1+i1−i to get −i, then exploit the fact that powers of i (and of −i) repeat with period 4.
Step 1 — Simplify the base.
Multiply numerator and denominator by the conjugate of the denominator:
1+i1−i=(1+i)(1−i)(1−i)(1−i)=1−i21−2i+i2
Using i2=−1:
=1+11−2i−1=2−2i=−i
Step 2 — Raise to the 96th power using periodicity.
Powers of −i cycle with period 4:
(−i)1=−i,(−i)2=i2=−1,(−i)3=i,(−i)4=1
Since 96=4×24 is an exact multiple of 4:
(−i)96=[(−i)4]24=124=1
Step 3 — Read off a and b.
a+ib=1=1+0⋅i⇒a=1, b=0
(a,b)=(1,0)
Alternative check (polar form): −i=cos(−2π)+isin(−2π). By De Moivre, (−i)96=cos(−48π)+isin(−48π)=1+0i. ✓ Same result.
✓Final answerThe correct option is (B) — (1, 0).
ANSWER: B
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