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Exercise 7.10 · Q1

Q.By using the properties of definite integrals, evaluate the integral ∫0π/2cos⁡2x dx\int_{0}^{\pi/2}\cos^2 x\,dx

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Using the symmetry property ∫0af(x) dx=∫0af(a−x) dx\int_{0}^{a} f(x)\,dx = \int_{0}^{a} f(a-x)\,dx, we rewrite cos⁡2x\cos^2 x as sin⁡2x\sin^2 x, add the two forms, and get 2I=∫0π/21 dx=π22I = \int_{0}^{\pi/2} 1\,dx = \frac{\pi}{2}, so I=π4I = \frac{\pi}{4}.

The problem asks us to evaluate ∫0π/2cos⁡2x dx\int_{0}^{\pi/2} \cos^2 x \, dx using properties of definite integrals. The direct approach — finding an antiderivative — is straightforward, but the instruction to use properties nudges us toward a more elegant method that builds deeper intuition.

The key property here is the symmetry of the definite integral about the midpoint of the interval. For any function ff continuous on [0,a][0, a], we have:

∫0af(x) dx=∫0af(a−x) dx\int_{0}^{a} f(x) \, dx = \int_{0}^{a} f(a - x) \, dx

Why does this work? Because as xx runs from 00 to aa, the quantity a−xa - x runs from aa down to 00 — it’s just a reversal of direction. The area under the curve doesn’t care about direction, so the integral stays the same.

Now, apply this to our integral. Let:

I=∫0π/2cos⁡2x dxI = \int_{0}^{\pi/2} \cos^2 x \, dx

Here a=π2a = \frac{\pi}{2}. Using the property:

I=∫0π/2cos⁡2(π2−x)dxI = \int_{0}^{\pi/2} \cos^2\left(\frac{\pi}{2} - x\right) dx

But cos⁡(π2−x)=sin⁡x\cos\left(\frac{\pi}{2} - x\right) = \sin x, so:

I=∫0π/2sin⁡2x dxI = \int_{0}^{\pi/2} \sin^2 x \, dx

This is the crucial step: the integral of cos⁡2x\cos^2 x from 00 to π/2\pi/2 equals the integral of sin⁡2x\sin^2 x over the same interval.

Now add the two expressions for II:

I+I=∫0π/2cos⁡2x dx+∫0π/2sin⁡2x dxI + I = \int_{0}^{\pi/2} \cos^2 x \, dx + \int_{0}^{\pi/2} \sin^2 x \, dx

2I=∫0π/2(cos⁡2x+sin⁡2x) dx2I = \int_{0}^{\pi/2} (\cos^2 x + \sin^2 x) \, dx

And cos⁡2x+sin⁡2x=1\cos^2 x + \sin^2 x = 1, the most fundamental identity in trigonometry. So:

2I=∫0π/21 dx2I = \int_{0}^{\pi/2} 1 \, dx

The integral of 11 from 00 to π/2\pi/2 is just the length of the interval: π2−0=π2\frac{\pi}{2} - 0 = \frac{\pi}{2}.

Thus:

2I=π2⇒I=π42I = \frac{\pi}{2} \quad \Rightarrow \quad I = \frac{\pi}{4}

Watch out

A common mistake is to forget that the property ∫0af(x)dx=∫0af(a−x)dx\int_{0}^{a} f(x) dx = \int_{0}^{a} f(a-x) dx works only when both limits are the same. Don’t try to apply it blindly to integrals like ∫0πcos⁡2x dx\int_{0}^{\pi} \cos^2 x \, dx — the symmetry changes because the midpoint shifts.

Tip

This trick — writing an integral as the average of itself and its symmetric counterpart — is powerful. It works whenever f(x)+f(a−x)f(x) + f(a-x) simplifies nicely, especially with trigonometric functions on [0,π/2][0, \pi/2] or [0,π][0, \pi].

✓Final answer

The value of the integral is π4\boxed{\frac{\pi}{4}}.

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