Q.A bag contains red and blue balls. If balls are drawn at random without replacement, the probability of getting exactly one red ball is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
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Start your 14-day free trial to unlock the full solution →The problem asks for the probability of exactly one red ball when drawing 3 balls without replacement from 5 red and 3 blue balls. The answer is , which corresponds to option (C).
We are dealing with conditional probability without replacement — each draw changes the composition of the bag. The key idea: "exactly one red" means we get 1 red and 2 blue balls, in any order. Since the draws are without replacement, the probability is not constant across draws; we must account for the changing counts.
A clean way: count the number of favorable combinations and divide by the total number of ways to choose 3 balls from 8. This avoids the messy multiplication of conditional probabilities for each order.
For "exactly successes" in draws without replacement from a finite population, use the hypergeometric probability:
Here, successes = red balls (5), failures = blue balls (3), , .
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Total number of ways to choose any 3 balls from 8
This is .
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Number of ways to choose exactly 1 red ball from the 5 red balls
That’s .
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Number of ways to choose the remaining 2 balls from the 3 blue balls
That’s .
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Number of favorable combinations
Multiply the independent choices: .
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Probability …
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