Q.If π(π₯) = π₯ tanβ1 π₯ , then πβ²(1)is equal to
(A) π 4 β 1 2
(B) π 4 + 1 2
(C) β π 4 β 1 2
(D) β π 4 + 1 2
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Start your 14-day free trial to unlock the full solution βThe derivative of is found using the product rule. Evaluating at gives , which corresponds to option (B).
The key here is recognizing that is a product of two functions: and (inverse tangent, also written as ). When you see a product, your first instinct should be the product rule β not expanding or simplifying, because thereβs nothing to simplify here. The derivative of is a standard result: . Thatβs the only βtrickyβ part; everything else is straightforward algebra.
Letβs walk through it.
-
Apply the product rule.
For , we have .
Here, let and .
Then , and .
So:
- Evaluate at . Substitute into the derivative:
Now, is the angle whose tangent is 1. That angle is (since ).
Therefore:
- Match with the options. The options are given as combinations of and with plus/minus signs. Our result exactly matches option (B). β¦
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