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NCERT Exemplar · Q28

Q.The value of cos⁡−1(cos⁡3π2)\cos^{-1}\left(\cos\frac{3\pi}{2}\right) is equal to
(A) π2\frac{\pi}{2}
(B) 3π2\frac{3\pi}{2}
(C) 5π2\frac{5\pi}{2}
(D) 7π2\frac{7\pi}{2}

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The key is that cos⁡−1\cos^{-1} returns the principal value in [0,π][0,\pi], not the original angle. Since cos⁡3π2=0\cos\frac{3\pi}{2}=0, we need the angle in [0,π][0,\pi] whose cosine is 00, which is π2\frac{\pi}{2}.

The problem looks simple, but it traps students who forget the definition of the inverse cosine function. cos⁡−1\cos^{-1} is not the "undo" button for every angle — it only gives an output in a specific range, called the principal value branch.

For cos⁡−1\cos^{-1}, that range is [0,π][0, \pi]. So no matter what angle you feed into cos⁡\cos, when you take cos⁡−1\cos^{-1} of the result, you must get back an angle that lies between 00 and π\pi inclusive.

Now let's work through it.

  1. First, evaluate the inner expression: cos⁡3π2\cos\frac{3\pi}{2}.

    3π2\frac{3\pi}{2} is 270∘270^\circ, which lies on the negative y-axis. The cosine of 270∘270^\circ is 00.

    So cos⁡3π2=0\cos\frac{3\pi}{2} = 0.

  2. The problem reduces to finding cos⁡−1(0)\cos^{-1}(0).

    We need the angle θ\theta in [0,π][0, \pi] such that cos⁡θ=0\cos\theta = 0.

  3. On the unit circle, cosine is zero at π2\frac{\pi}{2} and 3π2\frac{3\pi}{2}. But only π2\frac{\pi}{2} lies in [0,π][0, \pi].

    Therefore cos⁡−1(0)=π2\cos^{-1}(0) = \frac{\pi}{2}. …

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