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NCERT Exemplar · Q42

Q.If AA and BB are such events that P(A)>0P(A) > 0 and P(B)≠1P(B) \neq 1, then P(A′∣B′)P(A' \mid B') equals
(A) 1−P(A∣B)1 - P(A \mid B)
(B) 1−P(A′∣B)1 - P(A' \mid B)
(C) 1−P(A∪B)P(B′)\dfrac{1 - P(A \cup B)}{P(B')}
(D) P(A′)P(B′)\dfrac{P(A')}{P(B')}

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The key idea is to use the definition of conditional probability and the complement rule. The correct expression for P(A′∣B′)P(A' \mid B') is 1−P(A∪B)P(B′)\dfrac{1 - P(A \cup B)}{P(B')}, which corresponds to option (C).

Why the Complement Rule is the Right Lens

When you see P(A′∣B′)P(A' \mid B'), your first instinct might be to reach for 1−P(A∣B)1 - P(A \mid B) — but that’s a trap. Conditional probability doesn’t distribute over complements the way unconditional probability does. The complement rule for conditional probability is:

P(A′∣B′)=1−P(A∣B′)P(A' \mid B') = 1 - P(A \mid B')

not 1−P(A∣B)1 - P(A \mid B). That subtle shift in the condition is everything.

So the cleanest path is to start from the definition of conditional probability, rewrite the numerator using set algebra, and simplify.

Step-by-Step Derivation

1. Write the definition.

For any two events XX and YY with P(Y)>0P(Y) > 0:

P(X∣Y)=P(X∩Y)P(Y)P(X \mid Y) = \frac{P(X \cap Y)}{P(Y)}

Here X=A′X = A' and Y=B′Y = B', so:

P(A′∣B′)=P(A′∩B′)P(B′)P(A' \mid B') = \frac{P(A' \cap B')}{P(B')}

2. Express the intersection using De Morgan’s law.

A′∩B′A' \cap B' is the complement of A∪BA \cup B:

A′∩B′=(A∪B)′A' \cap B' = (A \cup B)'

Therefore:

P(A′∩B′)=P((A∪B)′)=1−P(A∪B)P(A' \cap B') = P\big((A \cup B)'\big) = 1 - P(A \cup B)

3. Substitute back.

P(A′∣B′)=1−P(A∪B)P(B′)P(A' \mid B') = \frac{1 - P(A \cup B)}{P(B')}

That’s exactly option (C).

Watch out

A common mistake is to think P(A′∣B′)=1−P(A∣B)P(A' \mid B') = 1 - P(A \mid B). This is false because the condition changes from BB to B′B'. Always check: the complement rule for conditional probability is P(A′∣C)=1−P(A∣C)P(A' \mid C) = 1 - P(A \mid C) only when the condition CC stays the same.

4. Check why the other options fail. …

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