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NCERT Exemplar · Q48

Q.A bag contains 55 red and 33 blue balls. If 33 balls are drawn at random without replacement, the probability of getting exactly one red ball is
(A) 45196\dfrac{45}{196}
(B) 135392\dfrac{135}{392}
(C) 1556\dfrac{15}{56}
(D) 1529\dfrac{15}{29}

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The problem asks for the probability of exactly one red ball when drawing 3 balls without replacement from 5 red and 3 blue balls. The answer is 1556\frac{15}{56}, which corresponds to option (C).

We are dealing with conditional probability without replacement — each draw changes the composition of the bag. The key idea: "exactly one red" means we get 1 red and 2 blue balls, in any order. Since the draws are without replacement, the probability is not constant across draws; we must account for the changing counts.

A clean way: count the number of favorable combinations and divide by the total number of ways to choose 3 balls from 8. This avoids the messy multiplication of conditional probabilities for each order.

For "exactly kk successes" in nn draws without replacement from a finite population, use the hypergeometric probability:

P=(successes in populationk)×(failures in populationn−k)(total populationn)P = \frac{\binom{\text{successes in population}}{k} \times \binom{\text{failures in population}}{n-k}}{\binom{\text{total population}}{n}}

Here, successes = red balls (5), failures = blue balls (3), n=3n = 3, k=1k = 1.

  1. Total number of ways to choose any 3 balls from 8

    This is (83)=8×7×63×2×1=56\binom{8}{3} = \frac{8 \times 7 \times 6}{3 \times 2 \times 1} = 56.

  2. Number of ways to choose exactly 1 red ball from the 5 red balls

    That’s (51)=5\binom{5}{1} = 5.

  3. Number of ways to choose the remaining 2 balls from the 3 blue balls

    That’s (32)=3\binom{3}{2} = 3.

  4. Number of favorable combinations

    Multiply the independent choices: 5×3=155 \times 3 = 15.

  5. Probability …

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