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Exercises · 6.3

Q.A long solenoid with 1515 turns per cm has a small loop of area 2.0 cm22.0\ \text{cm}^2 placed inside the solenoid normal to its axis. If the current carried by the solenoid changes steadily from 2.0 A2.0\ \text{A} to 4.0 A4.0\ \text{A} in 0.1 s0.1\ \text{s}, what is the induced emf in the loop while the current is changing?

Rajasthan RbseTextbookSubjective· 2mImportance★★★★★
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✓ Free question

The induced emf is found using Faraday’s law: the changing current in the solenoid produces a changing magnetic flux through the loop. The result is 7.54×10−6 V7.54 \times 10^{-6}\ \text{V}.

The key here is mutual inductance — the solenoid’s magnetic field links the small loop, and when the solenoid current changes, the flux through the loop changes, inducing an emf. You don’t need the mutual inductance coefficient explicitly; you can compute the flux directly because the field inside a long solenoid is uniform and given by B=μ0nIB = \mu_0 n I, where nn is the number of turns per unit length.

Let’s work through it step by step.

  1. Find the magnetic field inside the solenoid. For an ideal long solenoid, the field is uniform along the axis and given by

B=μ0nIB = \mu_0 n I

where μ0=4π×10−7 T m/A\mu_0 = 4\pi \times 10^{-7}\ \text{T m/A}, nn is the number of turns per metre, and II is the current.

Here, n=15 turns per cm=1500 turns per metren = 15\ \text{turns per cm} = 1500\ \text{turns per metre}.

So at any instant, B=(4π×10−7)×1500×I=6π×10−4×IB = (4\pi \times 10^{-7}) \times 1500 \times I = 6\pi \times 10^{-4} \times I tesla.

  1. Compute the magnetic flux through the small loop. The loop is placed normal to the solenoid’s axis, so the field is perpendicular to its area. Flux is

Φ=BA\Phi = B A

where A=2.0 cm2=2.0×10−4 m2A = 2.0\ \text{cm}^2 = 2.0 \times 10^{-4}\ \text{m}^2.

Thus

Φ=(6π×10−4I)×(2.0×10−4)=1.2π×10−7I\Phi = (6\pi \times 10^{-4} I) \times (2.0 \times 10^{-4}) = 1.2\pi \times 10^{-7} I

in webers.

  1. Find the rate of change of flux. The current changes steadily from 2.0 A2.0\ \text{A} to 4.0 A4.0\ \text{A} in 0.1 s0.1\ \text{s}, so

dIdt=4.0−2.00.1=20 A/s\frac{dI}{dt} = \frac{4.0 - 2.0}{0.1} = 20\ \text{A/s}

Since Φ\Phi is proportional to II,

dΦdt=(1.2π×10−7)×dIdt=1.2π×10−7×20=2.4π×10−6 Wb/s\frac{d\Phi}{dt} = (1.2\pi \times 10^{-7}) \times \frac{dI}{dt} = 1.2\pi \times 10^{-7} \times 20 = 2.4\pi \times 10^{-6}\ \text{Wb/s}

  1. Apply Faraday’s law. The induced emf in the loop is

E=−dΦdt\mathcal{E} = -\frac{d\Phi}{dt}

The magnitude is

∣E∣=2.4π×10−6≈7.54×10−6 V|\mathcal{E}| = 2.4\pi \times 10^{-6} \approx 7.54 \times 10^{-6}\ \text{V}

Watch out

A common mistake is to forget converting units: turns per cm to turns per metre, and cm² to m². Also, the loop’s area is small, so the flux is tiny — the induced emf is in the microvolt range, which is physically reasonable.

Tip

You could also solve this using mutual inductance M=μ0nAM = \mu_0 n A for the loop-solenoid system, then E=M dI/dt\mathcal{E} = M \, dI/dt. Try it: M=(4π×10−7)(1500)(2.0×10−4)=1.2π×10−7 HM = (4\pi \times 10^{-7})(1500)(2.0 \times 10^{-4}) = 1.2\pi \times 10^{-7}\ \text{H}, and dI/dt=20dI/dt = 20, giving the same result.

✓Final answer

The induced emf in the loop is 7.54×10−6 V\boxed{7.54 \times 10^{-6}\ \text{V}}.

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