Q.If a function defined by π(π₯) = { ππ₯ + 1, π₯ β€ π cos π₯ , π₯ > π is continuous at π₯ = π, then the value of π is
(A) π
(B) β1 π
(C) 0
(D) β2 π
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Start your 14-day free trial to unlock the full solution βFor a function to be continuous at a point, the left-hand limit, right-hand limit, and the function's value at that point must all be equal. Here, equating the two one-sided limits at gives , which corresponds to option (D).
The idea of continuity at a point is beautifully simple: a function is continuous at if you can draw its graph through that point without lifting your pen. More formally, three things must match β the function's value at , the limit as you approach from the left, and the limit as you approach from the right. If any one of these is different, there's a break, a jump, or a hole.
Here, the function is defined in two pieces, meeting at . The left piece is (a straight line), and the right piece is (a wavy curve). For continuity at the seam, the line must exactly meet the curve at .
Let's work through it step by step.
- Find the left-hand limit as . For , the function is . So as we approach from values slightly less than , we use this expression:
- Find the right-hand limit as . For , the function is . Approaching from the right, we get:
And . So the right-hand limit is .
- Find the function's value at . Since the definition says for , the point itself belongs to the left piece. So:
- Apply the continuity condition. For continuity at , we need: β¦
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