Q.Show that an onto function is always one-one.
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Start your 14-day free trial to unlock the full solution →An onto function from a finite set to itself must be one-one because the domain and codomain have the same size — if it’s onto, every element in the codomain is used exactly once, leaving no room for two domain elements to map to the same output.
Why This Works — The Intuition
Think of a function as a matching between two sets of three labelled balls. If the function is onto (surjective), every ball in the codomain gets hit at least once. Since the domain also has exactly three balls, the only way to cover all three targets is to hit each one exactly once. If any target were hit twice, some other target would be left untouched — violating onto-ness. That “exactly once” property is precisely what it means to be one-one (injective).
This is a special case of a general fact: for finite sets of equal size, onto ⇔ one‑one. The proof below makes this precise.
Step‑by‑Step Proof
1. State what we know.
We have where .
- is onto: for every , there exists some with .
- (the size of the set).
2. Count the images.
Because is onto, the image set must be the whole codomain . So .
3. Relate domain size to image size.
For any function from a finite set to a set , the number of elements in the image cannot exceed the number of elements in the domain:
Here and , so the inequality is actually an equality: .
4. Interpret the equality.
The only way a function from a finite set to itself can have is if no two domain elements map to the same codomain element. Why?
- Suppose two different elements in satisfy . Then the image set would have at most distinct values, because one output is “shared”.
- Since we already know the image has exactly distinct values, sharing cannot happen. Hence is one‑one. …
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