Skip to content
Question of 32

Q.Using mathematical induction, prove the statement : a+ar+ar2+…a + ar + ar^2 + \ldots upto nn terms =a(rn−1)(r−1)= \dfrac{a(r^n - 1)}{(r - 1)}, r≠1r \neq 1.

Telangana TsbieTelangana Board of Intermediate Education (Intermediate 1st Year) 2020Subjective· 7mImportance★★★★★
0% · 0/32 Questions
🔒 Locked · start free trial →

You're viewing a preview — the full solution, concept, methods & PYQ mapping are locked.

Start your 14-day free trial to unlock the full solution →

Verify the base case n=1n=1, then show that if the formula holds for n=kn=k, adding the next term arkar^k makes it hold for n=k+1n=k+1 too.

Let P(n)P(n) be the statement: a+ar+ar2+⋯+arn−1=a(rn−1)r−1a+ar+ar^2+\cdots+ar^{n-1}=\dfrac{a(r^n-1)}{r-1}, for r≠1r\ne1.

Step 1 — Base case (n=1n=1). LHS =a=a (just the first term). RHS =a(r1−1)r−1=a(r−1)r−1=a=\dfrac{a(r^1-1)}{r-1}=\dfrac{a(r-1)}{r-1}=a. LHS == RHS, so P(1)P(1) is true.

Step 2 — Inductive hypothesis. Assume P(k)P(k) is true for some k≥1k\ge1:

a+ar+ar2+⋯+ark−1=a(rk−1)r−1a+ar+ar^2+\cdots+ar^{k-1}=\dfrac{a(r^k-1)}{r-1}

Step 3 — Inductive step, show P(k+1)P(k+1). Add the next term arkar^{k} (the (k+1)(k+1)-th term of the GP, index k+1−1=kk+1-1=k) to both sides:

a+ar+⋯+ark−1+ark=a(rk−1)r−1+arka+ar+\cdots+ar^{k-1}+ar^{k}=\dfrac{a(r^k-1)}{r-1}+ar^{k}

Step 4. Combine over a common denominator: …

Unlock everything free for 14 days

  • Full step-by-step solutions
  • Concept-first explanations
  • Methods, shortcuts & mistakes
  • PYQ mapping + timed mock tests

Full access for 14 days. No credit card required.