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Q.If f:A→Bf : A \to B, g:B→Cg : B \to C be bijections, then show that : (g∘f)−1=f−1∘g−1(g \circ f)^{-1} = f^{-1} \circ g^{-1}.

Telangana TsbieTelangana Board of Intermediate Education (Intermediate 1st Year) 2020Subjective· 7mImportance★★★★★
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Since f,gf,g are bijections, g∘f:A→Cg\circ f:A\to C is also a bijection and hence invertible; verify directly that f−1∘g−1f^{-1}\circ g^{-1} satisfies both defining conditions of being the inverse of g∘fg\circ f.

Given f:A→Bf:A\to B and g:B→Cg:B\to C are bijections. Then f−1:B→Af^{-1}:B\to A and g−1:C→Bg^{-1}:C\to B exist and are themselves bijections, and g∘f:A→Cg\circ f:A\to C is a bijection (composition of bijections is a bijection), so (g∘f)−1:C→A(g\circ f)^{-1}:C\to A exists.

Step 1 — a function hh is the inverse of kk iff k∘h=idk\circ h=\text{id} and h∘k=idh\circ k=\text{id}. We show f−1∘g−1f^{-1}\circ g^{-1} satisfies this for k=g∘fk=g\circ f.

Step 2 — check (g∘f)∘(f−1∘g−1)=idC(g\circ f)\circ(f^{-1}\circ g^{-1})=\text{id}_C. For any c∈Cc\in C:

(g∘f)∘(f−1∘g−1)(c)=g(f(f−1(g−1(c))))=g(g−1(c))=c(g\circ f)\circ(f^{-1}\circ g^{-1})(c)=g\big(f(f^{-1}(g^{-1}(c)))\big)=g\big(g^{-1}(c)\big)=c

using f∘f−1=idBf\circ f^{-1}=\text{id}_B then g∘g−1=idCg\circ g^{-1}=\text{id}_C. So (g∘f)∘(f−1∘g−1)=idC(g\circ f)\circ(f^{-1}\circ g^{-1})=\text{id}_C.

Step 3 — check (f−1∘g−1)∘(g∘f)=idA(f^{-1}\circ g^{-1})\circ(g\circ f)=\text{id}_A. For any a∈Aa\in A: …

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