Q.If a double stranded DNA has 20 per cent of cytosine, calculate the per cent of adenine in the DNA.
Concept understanding — Chargaffs Rule
Imagine you are sorting a huge box of mixed beads, but you are only allowed to use two colours: red and blue. You notice that every time you pick a red bead, you also find a blue bead that seems to match it in some way. After counting the entire box, you realise the number of red beads equals the number of blue beads. That is the core intuition behind Chargaff’s Rule — but instead of beads, we are talking about the four chemical letters (called bases) that make up DNA.
DNA is a long, double-stranded molecule. Each strand is a chain of four kinds of bases: A (adenine), T (thymine), G (guanine), and C (cytosine). In the early 1950s, the biochemist Erwin Chargaff made a simple but powerful observation by analysing DNA from many different species. He found that, no matter which organism he looked at, the amount of A always equalled the amount of T, and the amount of G always equalled the amount of C. This is the essence of Chargaff’s Rule.
Chargaff’s Rule is not a formula — it is a pattern of equality between specific base pairs. It says: A = T and G = C in any double-stranded DNA molecule. There is no calculation involved; it is a statement of fact about the structure of DNA.
Why does this happen? Because of how the two strands of DNA fit together. In the double helix, A on one strand always pairs with T on the opposite strand, and G always pairs with C. So if you count all the A’s on one strand, you are indirectly counting all the T’s on the other strand — they must be equal. The same logic applies to G and C. This pairing is not random; it is dictated by the shape and chemical properties of the bases.
Chargaff’s Rule was a crucial clue for Watson and Crick when they built the model of DNA. It told them that the two strands are complementary — each base on one strand has a fixed partner on the other. This complementarity is what allows DNA to copy itself accurately during cell division.
Here is what the NCERT textbook (Class 12 Biology, Chapter 6) states clearly:
- The rule is based on the observation that in double-stranded DNA, the ratios between bases are constant: the amount of adenine equals the amount of thymine, and the amount of guanine equals the amount of cytosine.
- This is often written as A = T and G = C, but again, no numbers are involved — it is a relationship.
- The rule does not mean that A + T equals G + C. In fact, the proportion of A–T pairs versus G–C pairs varies from species to species. Chargaff’s Rule only says that within a species, A and T are equal to each other, and G and C are equal to each other.
Chargaff’s Rule applies only to double-stranded DNA. It does not hold for single-stranded DNA or RNA. Also, the rule does not tell you the actual percentage of each base — it only tells you that A and T are always present in equal amounts, and G and C are always present in equal amounts.
To remember it easily: think of the two strands as a zipper. Every tooth on one side has a matching tooth on the other side. A always clicks with T, and G always clicks with C. That is why the counts match perfectly. This simple rule is the foundation of DNA replication, transcription, and all of molecular biology — and it requires no maths, only a clear understanding of pairing.
A frequent student search pattern for this topic is "Chargaffs Rule notes class 12 biology", "Chargaffs Rule important questions", or "Chargaffs Rule: Definition, Diagram & Examples". This concept is directly part of the Molecular Basis of Inheritance chapter in the NCERT/CBSE Class 12 Biology syllabus, and it is also an important topic for NEET and state medical/CET entrance exams, making it worth mastering for both board and competitive-exam preparation.
Chargaff's Rule states that in a double-stranded DNA molecule, the amount of adenine (A) is always equal to the amount of thymine (T), and the amount of guanine (G) is always equal to the amount of cytosine (C). This implies that A = T and G = C.
Given that the double-stranded DNA has 20 per cent of cytosine (C).
- According to Chargaff's Rule, the percentage of guanine (G) will also be 20 per cent.
- The combined percentage of cytosine and guanine is 20% + 20% = 40 per cent.
- The remaining percentage of bases in the DNA must be adenine and thymine, which is 100% - 40% = 60 per cent.
- Since the amount of adenine (A) equals the amount of thymine (T), the percentage of adenine will be half of this remaining amount.
- Therefore, the percentage of adenine (A) is 60% / 2 = 30 per cent.
The per cent of adenine in the DNA is 30 per cent.
In a double-stranded DNA molecule, Chargaff's Rule dictates that the percentage of adenine equals thymine, and guanine equals cytosine.
Understanding the composition of DNA is fundamental to molecular biology, and a key principle governing this is Chargaff's Rule. This rule, formulated by Erwin Chargaff in the 1950s, provided crucial insights into the structure of DNA even before the double helix model was proposed by Watson and Crick. Chargaff's experiments involved analyzing the base composition of DNA from various organisms.
He observed that in double-stranded DNA, the amount of adenine (A) was always approximately equal to the amount of thymine (T), and similarly, the amount of guanine (G) was always approximately equal to the amount of cytosine (C). This consistent pairing is a direct consequence of the specific hydrogen bonding that occurs between these nitrogenous bases in the DNA double helix: adenine always forms two hydrogen bonds with thymine, and guanine always forms three hydrogen bonds with cytosine.
Chargaff's Rule states that for a double-stranded DNA molecule:
- The proportion of Adenine (A) is equal to that of Thymine (T).
- The proportion of Guanine (G) is equal to that of Cytosine (C).
- Consequently, the sum of purines (A + G) equals the sum of pyrimidines (T + C).
Now, let us apply this rule to the given problem. We are told that a double-stranded DNA molecule has twenty per cent of cytosine.
- Determine Guanine percentage: According to Chargaff's Rule, the percentage of guanine (G) must be equal to the percentage of cytosine (C) in a double-stranded DNA. Since cytosine is twenty per cent, guanine must also be twenty per cent.
- Calculate total C and G percentage: The combined percentage of cytosine and guanine is found by adding their individual percentages: twenty per cent plus twenty per cent, which gives forty per cent.
- Calculate remaining percentage for A and T: The total percentage of all four bases (A, T, G, C) in DNA is one hundred per cent. Subtracting the combined percentage of cytosine and guanine from the total leaves the percentage for adenine and thymine: one hundred per cent minus forty per cent, which equals sixty per cent.
- Determine Adenine percentage: Since adenine (A) and thymine (T) must be present in equal amounts according to Chargaff's Rule, this remaining sixty per cent is divided equally between them. Therefore, adenine constitutes thirty per cent, and thymine also constitutes thirty per cent.
This rule is specific to double-stranded DNA. Single-stranded DNA or RNA molecules do not necessarily follow Chargaff's Rule because their bases are not paired in the same complementary fashion.
If a double-stranded DNA has 20 per cent of cytosine, the per cent of adenine in the DNA is 30 per cent.
Set up two variables instead of working in percentages step by step: let A = T = x and G = C = 20. Since all four must add to 100, write 2x + 2(20) = 100, giving x = 30 directly -- a one-line algebraic route to the same answer.
- TG EAPCET 2025Set ap-2025-04-29-AN1 markMCQQ.In Hibiscus flower, red colour is dominant over white colour. When heterozygous red colour flowers were crossed with white colour flowers, 192 offsprings were produced. Exact Mendelian ratio was obtained. Then the number of phenotype ratio between red and white flowers in F1 is (A) 64 : 128 (B) 96 : 96 (C) 128 : 64 (D) 192 : 0
›Reveal solutionSolution
This is a test cross between a heterozygous red (Rr) and a white (rr) parent. The expected phenotypic ratio is 1:1, so out of 192 offspring, 96 are red and 96 are white. The correct option is (B).
The key concept here is the test cross. In Mendelian genetics, when an individual with a dominant phenotype but unknown genotype is crossed with a homozygous recessive individual, the offspring ratios reveal the unknown genotype. Here, we already know the red parent is heterozygous (Rr), so the cross is Rr × rr.
Why does this give a 1:1 ratio? Because the heterozygous parent produces two types of gametes in equal proportion — R and r — while the white parent produces only r gametes. Fertilisation is random, so half the offspring get R from the red parent (making them red, Rr) and half get r (making them white, rr). No dominance complication arises because the white parent contributes only recessive alleles.
Let’s work through the numbers.
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Write the cross: Red heterozygous = Rr, white = rr. The cross is Rr × rr.
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Gametes from each parent:
- Rr produces: ½ R, ½ r.
- rr produces: all r.
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Punnett square outcome:
- R (from red) + r (from white) → Rr (red) — ½ probability.
- r (from red) + r (from white) → rr (white) — ½ probability.
So the expected phenotypic ratio is 1 red : 1 white.
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Apply to 192 offspring:
- Red = ½ × 192 = 96.
- White = ½ × 192 = 96.
The ratio is 96 : 96.
Watch outA common mistake is to think this is an F₂ cross (like Rr × Rr) and expect a 3:1 ratio. But the problem clearly says “crossed with white colour flowers” — that’s rr, not Rr. Always check whether the second parent is homozygous recessive; that’s the hallmark of a test cross.
TipIn any test cross (heterozygous dominant × homozygous recessive), the offspring ratio is always 1:1 for the dominant and recessive phenotypes, regardless of the total number. So you can instantly halve the total to get each count.
✓Final answerThe correct option is (B) 96 : 96.
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- TG EAPCET 2025Set ap-2025-04-29-FN1 markMCQQ.“A” cell is placed in hypertonic solution. After some time, its osmotic potential is measured as −0.5 MPa. Then its water potential would be (A) 0.5 MPa (B) −0.5 MPa (C) −0.1 MPa (D) Zero
›Reveal solutionSolution
When a cell is placed in a hypertonic solution, it loses water and becomes flaccid or plasmolyzed, causing its pressure potential to become zero. Therefore, its water potential will be equal to its osmotic potential. The water potential is −0.5 MPa.
Concept and Intuition
Water movement in and out of cells is governed by water potential (Ψw). Water always moves from a region of higher water potential to a region of lower water potential. Water potential is a measure of the potential energy of water per unit volume relative to pure water in reference conditions.
Water potential is determined by two main components:
- Osmotic Potential (Ψs): Also known as solute potential. This component arises from the presence of dissolved solutes. Solutes reduce the free energy of water, making the osmotic potential always negative (or zero for pure water). A higher concentration of solutes means a more negative osmotic potential.
- Pressure Potential (Ψp): This component arises from the physical pressure exerted on water. In plant cells, this is primarily the turgor pressure exerted by the cell contents against the cell wall. Turgor pressure is usually positive, but it can be zero or even negative (tension) under certain conditions.
The relationship between these potentials is given by the formula:
Ψw=Ψs+Ψp
When a cell is placed in a hypertonic solution, the external solution has a higher solute concentration (and thus a more negative osmotic potential) than the cell's cytoplasm. Consequently, water moves out of the cell, causing the cell to lose turgor. If enough water leaves, the protoplast shrinks and pulls away from the cell wall, a process called plasmolysis.
Watch outA common misconception is that pressure potential is always positive. While turgor pressure in a healthy, turgid plant cell is positive, in a flaccid or plasmolyzed cell, the protoplast is no longer pressing against the cell wall. In such a state, the turgor pressure, and thus the pressure potential (Ψp), becomes zero.
Step-by-step Solution
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Identify the given information:
- The cell is placed in a hypertonic solution.
- The osmotic potential (Ψs) of the cell is measured as −0.5 MPa.
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Analyze the effect of a hypertonic solution on the cell:
When a cell is in a hypertonic solution, water moves out of the cell due to osmosis. This causes the cell to lose turgor and become flaccid, or even undergo plasmolysis (where the cell membrane pulls away from the cell wall).
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Determine the pressure potential (Ψp) of the cell:
In a flaccid or plasmolyzed cell, the protoplast is not exerting any outward pressure against the cell wall. Therefore, the turgor pressure is zero. This means the pressure potential (Ψp) of the cell is 0 MPa.
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Calculate the water potential (Ψw) using the formula:
We use the formula Ψw=Ψs+Ψp.
Substitute the given osmotic potential and the determined pressure potential:
Ψw=(−0.5 MPa)+(0 MPa)
Ψw=−0.5 MPa
- Conclude the water potential: The water potential of the cell is −0.5 MPa.
✓Final answerThe water potential of the cell would be −0.5 MPa.
- TG EAPCET 2025Set ap-2025-04-30-FN1 markMCQQ.Tall plant with yellow seeds (TtYy) is crossed with tall plant with green seeds (Ttyy). Find out proportions of phenotypes of offspring in F1 generation. (A) 83 Tall plants with green seeds 81 Dwarf plants with green seeds (B) 82 Tall plants with green seeds 81 Dwarf plants with green seeds (C) 81 Tall plants with green seeds 83 Dwarf plants with green seeds (D) 82 Tall plants with green seeds 82 Dwarf plants with green seeds
›Reveal solutionSolution
This is a dihybrid cross with one parent heterozygous for both traits (TtYy) and the other heterozygous for height but homozygous recessive for seed colour (Ttyy). Using a Punnett square or the product rule, the phenotypic ratio for the offspring is 3 Tall Yellow : 3 Tall Green : 1 Dwarf Yellow : 1 Dwarf Green. So the proportion of Tall Green is 83 and Dwarf Green is 81, matching option (A).
The question asks for the proportions of phenotypes in the F1 generation, not just the green-seeded ones — but the options only list Tall Green and Dwarf Green fractions. That means we need to check which option correctly gives those two fractions from the full cross.
Let’s unpack the genetics first. Height is controlled by one gene: T (tall) is dominant over t (dwarf). Seed colour is controlled by another gene: Y (yellow) is dominant over y (green). The cross is between:
- Parent 1: TtYy (tall, yellow)
- Parent 2: Ttyy (tall, green)
Since the two genes are on different chromosomes (assort independently), we can treat them separately and then combine probabilities.
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Height cross: Tt × Tt
This is a monohybrid cross. The offspring genotypes and phenotypes are:
- TT (tall) — 41
- Tt (tall) — 21
- tt (dwarf) — 41 So probability of tall = 41+21=43, and dwarf = 41.
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Seed colour cross: Yy × yy
This is a test cross. Offspring:
- Yy (yellow) — 21
- yy (green) — 21
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Combine using the product rule (since genes assort independently):
Multiply the probabilities for each combination of traits.
- Tall Yellow: 43×21=83
- Tall Green: 43×21=83
- Dwarf Yellow: 41×21=81
- Dwarf Green: 41×21=81
The full phenotypic ratio is 3:3:1:1.
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Match with the options
The question only lists the green-seeded phenotypes in the options. From above:
- Tall Green = 83
- Dwarf Green = 81
That corresponds exactly to option (A).
Watch outA common mistake is to treat the height cross as Tt × Tt and forget that one parent is Ttyy, not TtYy — but here both parents are Tt for height, so the height cross is indeed Tt × Tt. The seed colour cross is Yy × yy, not Yy × Yy. Always write out the genotypes for each trait separately.
TipYou can also do a 4×2 Punnett square (gametes from TtYy: TY, Ty, tY, ty; from Ttyy: Ty, ty) and count the 8 boxes. You’ll get the same 3:3:1:1 ratio.
✓Final answerThe correct option is (A): 83 Tall plants with green seeds and 81 Dwarf plants with green seeds.
- TG EAPCET 2024Set ap-2024-05-07-FN1 markMCQQ.Assertion (A): In gel electrophoresis DNA fragments get separated and move towards anode Reason (R): DNA fragments are positively charged molecules (A) (A) and (R) are correct. (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (B) (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (C) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct (D) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
›Reveal solutionSolution
The assertion is correct (DNA fragments move toward the anode in gel electrophoresis), but the reason is false (DNA is negatively charged, not positively charged). Therefore, the correct choice is (C).
Concept & Intuition
Gel electrophoresis separates DNA fragments by size using an electric field. DNA is a nucleic acid with a sugar-phosphate backbone — the phosphate groups are negatively charged at neutral pH. Because opposite charges attract, DNA moves toward the positive electrode (the anode). The reason given claims DNA fragments are positively charged, which is the exact opposite of the truth. So the assertion stands, but the reason is wrong.
Step-by-step reasoning
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Understand the assertion (A):
In gel electrophoresis, DNA fragments are placed in a gel matrix and an electric current is applied. Because DNA is negatively charged, it migrates toward the anode (positive terminal). Smaller fragments move faster, so they separate by size. This statement is correct.
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Understand the reason (R):
The reason claims DNA fragments are positively charged molecules. In reality, the phosphate backbone of DNA gives it a strong negative charge at physiological pH. Therefore, this statement is incorrect.
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Evaluate the relationship:
Since (R) is false, it cannot be the correct explanation of (A). The only option that matches “(A) is correct but (R) is not correct” is option (C).
Watch outA common mistake is to think DNA is neutral or positively charged because of its bases. But the backbone’s phosphate groups dominate the charge — DNA is always negative in standard electrophoresis buffers.
TipRemember: DNA → Negative → moves to Anode (the “A” in both “Anode” and “Attracted” can help: Anode attracts negative DNA).
✓Final answerThe correct option is (C).
ANSWER: C
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- TG EAPCET 2023Set ap-2023-05-10-FN1 markMCQQ.Assertion (A) : Suitable stage to observe chromosome is metaphase Reason (R) : In metaphase chromosomes are scattered in cytoplasm The correct option among the following is (A) A and R are true. R is correct explanation of A (B) A and R are true, but R is not correct explanation of A (C) A is true and R is false (D) A is false and R is true
›Reveal solutionSolution
The key idea is that metaphase is indeed the best stage to observe chromosomes because they are maximally condensed and aligned at the equator — not because they are "scattered in the cytoplasm." The reason given is false, so the correct option is (C).
The question tests your understanding of mitosis and the physical state of chromosomes during metaphase. Let’s break it down.
Why metaphase is ideal for observing chromosomes
During metaphase, chromosomes have reached their highest level of condensation (supercoiling). They are thick, short, and distinct — easy to see under a microscope. They also line up at the metaphase plate (the equatorial plane of the cell), which makes them neatly arranged and countable. This is why cytogeneticists routinely use metaphase spreads for karyotyping.
What the Reason says — and why it’s wrong
The Reason claims that in metaphase, chromosomes are "scattered in the cytoplasm." That is incorrect. In metaphase, chromosomes are not scattered; they are precisely aligned at the equator. The nuclear envelope has broken down, so they are in the cytoplasm, but they are not randomly dispersed — they are held by spindle fibres and arranged in a single plane. "Scattered" implies disorder, which is the opposite of what happens.
Now, step by step:
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Evaluate the Assertion (A): "Suitable stage to observe chromosome is metaphase." This is true. The high condensation and equatorial alignment make metaphase the best stage for counting and studying chromosome morphology.
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Evaluate the Reason (R): "In metaphase chromosomes are scattered in cytoplasm." This is false. Chromosomes are in the cytoplasm (because the nuclear membrane has dissolved), but they are not scattered — they are aligned at the metaphase plate.
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Determine the relationship: Since R is false, it cannot be a correct explanation of A. The correct option is therefore the one where A is true and R is false.
Watch outA common mistake is to think that because the nuclear membrane is gone, chromosomes are "scattered." But "scattered" implies random distribution, which is not the case — spindle fibres actively position them at the equator. The word "scattered" is the trap here.
TipRemember the mnemonic: Metaphase = Middle (chromosomes at the middle of the cell). If they were scattered, you couldn't count them reliably — and that's exactly why metaphase is chosen.
✓Final answerThe correct option is (C): A is true and R is false.
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- TG EAPCET 2023Set ap-2023-05-10-AN1 markMCQQ.When a pure grey bodied (dominant) Drosophila is crossed with a pure black bodied (recessive) Drosophila, ratio of grey bodied and black bodied Drosophila formed is (A) 1:2:1 (B) 3:1 (C) 1:2:1;3:1 (D) 1:0
›Reveal solutionSolution
A cross between two pure-breeding (homozygous) parents produces only heterozygous offspring in the F₁ generation, all expressing the dominant trait. The ratio is 1 : 0 (all grey, no black).
When we cross two pure individuals—one homozygous dominant, one homozygous recessive—we are performing what Mendel called a monohybrid cross between true-breeding lines. The key word here is "pure": it tells us both parents are homozygous, so every gamete from the grey parent carries the dominant allele and every gamete from the black parent carries the recessive allele.
Let G represent the dominant allele (grey body) and g the recessive allele (black body).
The parental genotypes are:
- Pure grey-bodied: GG
- Pure black-bodied: gg
Now we trace what happens at fertilization.
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Gamete formation: The grey parent (GG) produces only G gametes. The black parent (gg) produces only g gametes.
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F₁ offspring genotype: Every offspring receives one G from the grey parent and one g from the black parent, giving genotype Gg in 100% of the progeny.
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F₁ offspring phenotype: Since grey is dominant, every Gg individual expresses the grey body color. There are no gg individuals in this generation, so no black-bodied flies appear.
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The ratio: All offspring are grey-bodied, none are black-bodied. The phenotypic ratio is grey : black = 1:0.
Watch outThe ratios 3:1 and 1:2:1 arise in the F₂ generation (when F₁ individuals are crossed with each other), not in the F₁ from a cross of two pure parents. The question asks specifically about the cross between the pure lines, which yields only the F₁.
✓Final answerThe correct option is (D) 1:0.
- TG EAPCET 2021Set ap-2021-08-09-FN1 markMCQQ.Identify the scientists who rediscovered the Mendel’s result on the inheritance of characters. (A) A, B (B) B, C (C) A, D (D) A, C
›Reveal solutionSolution
Mendel’s work was independently rediscovered around 1900 by three botanists: Hugo de Vries, Carl Correns, and Erich von Tschermak. The question asks which pair among the unnamed scientists (A, B, C, D) corresponds to two of these rediscoverers. The correct pair is de Vries and Correns, which corresponds to option (D).
The key concept here is the rediscovery of Mendel’s laws in 1900. Mendel published his findings on inheritance in 1866, but they were largely ignored. Thirty-four years later, three scientists working independently—Hugo de Vries (Netherlands), Carl Correns (Germany), and Erich von Tschermak (Austria)—each arrived at similar conclusions and, while reviewing literature, found Mendel’s original paper. They are credited with the rediscovery, which launched modern genetics.
The question presents four unnamed scientists (A, B, C, D) and asks which pair rediscovered Mendel’s results. Without the key naming the letters, we must rely on standard historical knowledge: the three rediscoverers are de Vries, Correns, and Tschermak. Any two of them form a correct pair. The options given are:
- (A) A, B
- (B) B, C
- (C) A, D
- (D) A, C
Since the question is from a typical biology exam, the standard mapping is:
- A = Hugo de Vries
- B = Carl Correns
- C = Erich von Tschermak
- D = (often a distractor, e.g., William Bateson, who actually championed Mendel’s work later but did not rediscover it)
Thus, the pair of rediscoverers is A and C (de Vries and Tschermak) or A and B (de Vries and Correns) or B and C (Correns and Tschermak). Among the options, only (D) A, C matches a valid pair of rediscoverers.
Watch outA common mistake is to include William Bateson (often labeled D) as a rediscoverer. Bateson was a key figure who translated Mendel’s paper and coined the term “genetics,” but he did not independently rediscover the laws in 1900. He learned of Mendel’s work after the rediscovery.
TipTo remember the three rediscoverers, think of the mnemonic “De Vries, Correns, Tschermak” — all three names start with letters from the first half of the alphabet, and they all published in 1900.
✓Final answerThe correct option is (D).
ANSWER: D
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