Q.Conditions of a karyotype 2n + 1, 2n – 1 and 2n + 2, 2n – 2 are called:
Concept understanding — Dihybrid Cross Ratio
Let’s begin with something you already know from everyday life. Think about a family where the parents have two different traits — say, one parent has curly hair and brown eyes, the other has straight hair and blue eyes. Their children might inherit any combination: curly hair with brown eyes, straight hair with blue eyes, curly hair with blue eyes, or straight hair with brown eyes. You can see that traits don’t always travel together; they can mix and match.
That mixing is exactly what a dihybrid cross is about. In biology, a dihybrid cross is a breeding experiment that tracks two different traits at the same time — for example, seed shape (round vs wrinkled) and seed colour (yellow vs green) in pea plants. The “dihybrid cross ratio” is the predictable pattern in which these two traits appear in the offspring when both parents are hybrid (carrying one dominant and one recessive version) for both traits.
The classic result, as stated in the NCERT textbook, is a 9:3:3:1 ratio in the second generation. That means:
- 9 out of 16 offspring show both dominant traits (e.g., round and yellow)
- 3 out of 16 show the first dominant trait and the second recessive trait (e.g., round and green)
- 3 out of 16 show the first recessive trait and the second dominant trait (e.g., wrinkled and yellow)
- 1 out of 16 shows both recessive traits (e.g., wrinkled and green)
The 9:3:3:1 ratio is not a random outcome. It is the direct consequence of independent assortment — the principle that genes for different traits are inherited independently of one another. This is one of Mendel’s key laws, and the ratio is its visible proof.
Why does this matter for a commerce or humanities student? Because this ratio is a classic example of probability in action. It shows how combinations of independent events produce predictable patterns — the same logic that underlies risk assessment in insurance, portfolio diversification in finance, or even the likelihood of certain combinations in a game of cards. You don’t need to calculate anything; you just need to see that nature follows rules, and those rules can be expressed as simple proportions.
The NCERT textbook presents this ratio as the foundation for understanding how traits are inherited when more than one characteristic is involved. It is not about memorising numbers — it is about recognising that variation is not chaos. There is order in how traits combine, and that order is what the dihybrid cross ratio captures.
In the CBSE Class 12 Biology syllabus, the dihybrid cross ratio is taught as part of Mendel’s experiments. The focus is on understanding the principle of independent assortment, not on solving problems. For a humanities student, the key takeaway is that this ratio demonstrates how two independent events (inheritance of two traits) can be predicted using simple probability — a concept that appears in economics, statistics, and even decision-making.
The dihybrid cross ratio is one of the most exam-relevant numbers in genetics, regularly appearing in searches like "dihybrid cross 9:3:3:1 ratio explained" and "dihybrid cross important questions class 12 biology." It is directly aligned with the NCERT Class 12 Biology curriculum on Mendelian inheritance and is a recurring favourite in both CBSE board papers and NEET biology sections.
The question asks about specific chromosomal conditions where the chromosome number deviates slightly from the normal diploid (2n) state.
When an organism has one or a few chromosomes more or less than the normal diploid number, the condition is called aneuploidy. This includes:
• 2n + 1 (trisomy) – one extra chromosome in a diploid set
• 2n – 1 (monosomy) – one chromosome missing from a diploid set
• 2n + 2 – two extra chromosomes
• 2n – 2 – two chromosomes missing
Aneuploidy arises due to the failure of chromosomes to separate properly during cell division (non-disjunction). It contrasts with euploidy, where entire chromosome sets are added or removed.
Polyploidy refers to organisms with more than two complete sets of chromosomes (3n, 4n, etc.), not individual chromosome gains or losses. Allopolyploidy is a specific type of polyploidy involving chromosome sets from different species. Monosomy is just one type of aneuploidy (2n – 1), not the umbrella term for all these conditions.
The conditions 2n + 1, 2n – 1, 2n + 2, and 2n – 2 are collectively called aneuploidy (Option A), which describes any deviation from the normal diploid number by individual chromosomes rather than complete sets.
Karyotypes with one or two chromosomes added or missing (2n ± 1, 2n ± 2) represent aneuploidy, a condition where the chromosome number is not an exact multiple of the haploid set.
Chromosomal variations fall into two broad categories based on how they deviate from the normal diploid number. Understanding this distinction is essential to grasp what happens when cells fail to segregate chromosomes properly during division.
In a normal diploid organism, every cell carries two complete sets of chromosomes — the 2n condition. When something goes wrong during meiosis, particularly during the separation of homologous chromosomes or sister chromatids, the resulting gametes may carry an abnormal number. Fertilization involving such gametes produces individuals with altered karyotypes.
Aneuploidy describes any condition where the chromosome number is not an exact multiple of the basic haploid set (n). Instead of having precisely 2n, 3n, or 4n chromosomes, an aneuploid organism has gained or lost individual chromosomes. The conditions listed in the question are classic examples:
- 2n + 1 (trisomy): One extra chromosome in a single pair, so three copies of that particular chromosome exist instead of two
- 2n – 1 (monosomy): One chromosome is missing from a pair, leaving only a single copy
- 2n + 2: Two extra chromosomes, which could mean trisomy in two different pairs or tetrasomy in one
- 2n – 2: Two chromosomes missing, typically from two different pairs
These arise from non-disjunction — the failure of chromosomes to separate properly during cell division. In humans, Down syndrome (trisomy 21) and Turner syndrome (monosomy X) are well-known aneuploid conditions.
Monosomy, mentioned in option D, is actually one type of aneuploidy (specifically 2n – 1), not a separate category. It's like saying "apple" versus "fruit" — monosomy is a subset, not an alternative.
Polyploidy, by contrast, involves entire extra sets of chromosomes. A polyploid organism has 3n (triploid), 4n (tetraploid), or higher multiples of the complete haploid set. Every chromosome is represented in the same increased number. This is common in plants — seedless watermelons are triploid, and many crop species are polyploid. The key difference is that polyploidy maintains balance (all chromosomes equally represented), while aneuploidy creates imbalance (only some chromosomes affected).
Allopolyploidy is a specialized form of polyploidy where the extra chromosome sets come from different species, typically through hybridization followed by chromosome doubling. Wheat and cotton are classic examples. This is clearly not what 2n ± 1 or 2n ± 2 describes.
The defining feature of aneuploidy is the addition or loss of individual chromosomes, not complete sets. If you see ± 1 or ± 2 added to 2n, think aneuploidy; if you see 3n, 4n, 5n, think polyploidy.
The conditions 2n + 1, 2n – 1, 2n + 2, and 2n – 2 are all examples of aneuploidy (option A), characterized by the gain or loss of individual chromosomes rather than entire chromosome sets. Monosomy is merely one specific type of aneuploidy, not a separate category.
The suffixes give the answer away without needing to recall examples: '-somy' (as in trisomy, monosomy) always refers to a change in the count of INDIVIDUAL chromosomes, which is exactly what 'aneuploidy' means, while '-ploidy' word forms like polyploidy/allopolyploidy always refer to changes in the number of COMPLETE chromosome SETS. Since 2n+1/2n-1/2n+2/2n-2 all describe one or two individual chromosomes being added or lost — not whole sets — the '-somy' family (aneuploidy) is the right umbrella term.
- TG EAPCET 2026Set ap-2026-05-04-AN1 markMCQQ.Match the following List-1 (Subphase of prophase I) A Diakinesis B Pachytene C Zygotene D Leptotene List-2 (Specific Characters) I Synaptonemal complex formation II Completion of terminalization of chiasmata III Chromosome looks like thin threads IV Appearance of recombination nodule (A) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV (B) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III (C) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I (D) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
›Reveal solutionSolution
Prophase I of meiosis is divided into five subphases, each marked by distinct chromosomal events; matching these events reveals that Diakinesis involves terminalization of chiasmata, Pachytene sees recombination nodules, Zygotene is for synaptonemal complex formation, and Leptotene is when chromosomes first appear as thin threads, leading to option (D).
Prophase I is the longest and most complex phase of meiosis, crucial for genetic recombination and variation. It is subdivided into five distinct subphases, each characterized by specific chromosomal behaviors. Understanding the sequence and significance of these events is key to grasping how genetic diversity is generated during sexual reproduction.
Here's a breakdown of each subphase and its defining characteristics:
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Leptotene (Leptonema):
- This is the first stage of Prophase I.
- During leptotene, the chromatin material begins to condense, making the individual chromosomes visible under a light microscope.
- Each chromosome consists of two sister chromatids, but they are so tightly associated that they appear as single, long, thin threads.
- The chromosomes are attached to the nuclear envelope at their telomeres.
- Matching with List-2: The description "Chromosome looks like thin threads" (III) perfectly fits Leptotene.
- Therefore, D-III.
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Zygotene (Zygonema):
- Following leptotene, homologous chromosomes begin to pair up, a process called synapsis.
- This pairing is highly specific and precise, aligning homologous genes.
- A protein structure called the synaptonemal complex forms between the paired homologous chromosomes, holding them together. The paired homologous chromosomes are now called a bivalent or a tetrad (because it consists of four chromatids).
- Matching with List-2: "Synaptonemal complex formation" (I) is the hallmark of Zygotene.
- Therefore, C-I.
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Pachytene (Pachynema):
- This is typically the longest subphase of Prophase I.
- The homologous chromosomes remain tightly paired, and the bivalents become more condensed and distinctly visible.
- The most significant event of pachytene is crossing over, the exchange of genetic material between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes.
- This exchange occurs at specific sites called recombination nodules, which are visible structures along the synaptonemal complex.
- Matching with List-2: "Appearance of recombination nodule" (IV) directly corresponds to Pachytene.
- Therefore, B-IV.
ImportantCrossing over is a critical event that shuffles genetic information, leading to new combinations of alleles on chromosomes and increasing genetic diversity.
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Diplotene (Diplonema):
- Although not present in List-1, it's important to understand this stage before Diakinesis.
- In diplotene, the synaptonemal complex dissolves, and the homologous chromosomes begin to separate from each other.
- However, they remain attached at specific points where crossing over occurred. These points of attachment are called chiasmata (singular: chiasma).
- The chiasmata represent the physical manifestation of previous crossing over events.
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Diakinesis:
- This is the final stage of Prophase I.
- During diakinesis, the chromosomes become fully condensed and appear as distinct, compact structures.
- The chiasmata move towards the ends of the chromosomes, a process called terminalization of chiasmata. This effectively "unzips" the homologous chromosomes from the centromere outwards.
- The nuclear envelope breaks down, and the nucleolus disappears. The meiotic spindle begins to form.
- Matching with List-2: "Completion of terminalization of chiasmata" (II) is the defining event of Diakinesis.
- Therefore, A-II.
Combining these matches:
- A (Diakinesis) matches II (Completion of terminalization of chiasmata)
- B (Pachytene) matches IV (Appearance of recombination nodule)
- C (Zygotene) matches I (Synaptonemal complex formation)
- D (Leptotene) matches III (Chromosome looks like thin threads)
This corresponds to option (D).
✓Final answerThe correct match is A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III, which corresponds to option (D).
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- TG EAPCET 2025Set ap-2025-04-29-FN1 markMCQQ.Study the following table
[!FORMULA] ProcessI SynapsisII Crossing overIII ReplicationIV TerminalizationSubphaseZygotenePachyteneDiploteneDiakinesisCharacterBivalent formationRecombination of genesSegregation of genesDivision of chromosome
The correct match is (A) I & III (B) I & IV (C) I & II (D) III & IV›Reveal solutionSolution
The question tests your knowledge of the correct pairing of meiotic subphases with their key events. Only I (Synapsis → Zygotene → Bivalent formation) and II (Crossing over → Pachytene → Recombination of genes) are correctly matched. The correct option is (C).
The table in the question lists four processes in meiosis I, each paired with a subphase and a character (the event that occurs). Your job is to spot which rows are factually correct. This is a classic memory-and-concept check from the chapter on cell division — you need to know the precise sequence of prophase I and what happens in each substage.
Let’s go row by row.
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Row I: Synapsis → Zygotene → Bivalent formation
Synapsis is the pairing of homologous chromosomes. It begins in zygotene and results in structures called bivalents (or tetrads). This is textbook correct. So I is correct.
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Row II: Crossing over → Pachytene → Recombination of genes
Crossing over — the exchange of genetic material between non-sister chromatids — occurs in pachytene. This leads to recombination of genes. This is also correct. So II is correct.
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Row III: Replication → Diplotene → Segregation of genes
Here’s the trap. DNA replication happens in the S phase of interphase, not in prophase I. Diplotene is the stage where chiasmata become visible and homologous chromosomes begin to separate — but segregation of genes (i.e., separation of alleles) occurs later, during anaphase I. So both the subphase and the character are wrong. III is incorrect.
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Row IV: Terminalization → Diakinesis → Division of chromosome
Terminalization refers to the movement of chiasmata toward the ends of chromosomes, which does happen in diakinesis. However, the character “Division of chromosome” is misleading — chromosome division (separation of sister chromatids) occurs in anaphase II, not in diakinesis. Diakinesis is the final stage of prophase I, where the nuclear envelope breaks down and the spindle forms. So the character is mismatched. IV is incorrect.
Watch outA common mistake is to think “Replication” belongs to prophase I because DNA is copied before meiosis begins. But replication is an interphase event, not a subphase of prophase I. Similarly, “Division of chromosome” sounds like it could fit diakinesis, but diakinesis is about condensation and terminalization — actual chromosome division comes much later.
Only rows I and II are correct.
✓Final answerThe correct option is (C) I & II.
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- TG EAPCET 2025Set ap-2025-04-30-FN1 markMCQQ.If a colour blind man marries a carrier woman for colour blindness, chances of their children to become colour blind is (A) 100% (B) 75% (C) 50% (D) 25%
›Reveal solutionSolution
Colour blindness is X-linked recessive. A colour blind father (XᶜY) and a carrier mother (XᶜX) produce sons with 50% chance of being colour blind and daughters with 50% chance of being colour blind. Overall, 50% of all children are affected.
The Concept: X-linked Recessive Inheritance
Colour blindness (red-green) is caused by a recessive allele on the X chromosome. This is crucial: males have only one X (XY), so a single recessive allele makes them colour blind. Females have two X's, so they need two recessive alleles to be affected; with one recessive they are carriers (unaffected).
The father in this problem is colour blind — his genotype is XᶜY (where Xᶜ = recessive allele for colour blindness). The mother is a carrier — her genotype is XᶜX (one normal X, one recessive X). Neither parent is normal; the father is affected, the mother is unaffected but carries the allele.
Step-by-Step Cross
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Write the parental genotypes
Father: XᶜY
Mother: XᶜX
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Determine the possible gametes
Father produces two types of sperm: Xᶜ and Y (each with equal probability).
Mother produces two types of eggs: Xᶜ and X (each with equal probability).
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Make the Punnett square
Xᶜ (from mother) X (from mother) Xᶜ (from father) XᶜXᶜ (daughter, colour blind) XᶜX (daughter, carrier) Y (from father) XᶜY (son, colour blind) XY (son, normal) -
Interpret each outcome
- XᶜXᶜ: daughter, colour blind (both X's carry the recessive allele)
- XᶜX: daughter, carrier (unaffected, but can pass the allele)
- XᶜY: son, colour blind (his only X is recessive)
- XY: son, normal (his X is normal)
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Count the affected children
Out of 4 equally likely outcomes, 2 are colour blind: the daughter XᶜXᶜ and the son XᶜY. That's 2 out of 4, or 50%.
Watch outA common mistake is to think that only sons can be colour blind. Here, because the father is colour blind and the mother is a carrier, a daughter can inherit the recessive allele from both parents and be affected. So both sons and daughters have a 50% chance of being colour blind individually.
TipFor X-linked recessive traits, the overall percentage of affected children from an affected father and carrier mother is always 50%. The ratio among sons is 1:1 (affected : normal), and among daughters it is also 1:1 (affected : carrier). No daughter is normal in this cross — she either gets the disease or becomes a carrier.
✓Final answerThe correct option is (C) 50%.
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- TG EAPCET 2023Set ap-2023-05-11-AN1 markMCQQ.Match the following List-I A. Sutton and Boveri B. Alfred Sturtevant C. Hugo-de-Vries D. T.H. Morgan List-II i. Chromosome map ii. Mutation iii. Chromosomal theory of inheritance iv. Linkage (A) A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv (B) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv (C) A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv (D) A-ii, B-iv, C-ii, D-iii
›Reveal solutionSolution
This question asks us to match prominent geneticists with their key contributions. We will match Sutton and Boveri with the chromosomal theory of inheritance, Alfred Sturtevant with chromosome mapping, Hugo de Vries with the concept of mutation, and T.H. Morgan with the discovery of linkage, leading to option (A).
The core concept here is understanding the historical development of genetics and the specific contributions of key scientists who shaped our understanding of heredity. Each scientist listed made a foundational discovery or proposed a significant theory that advanced the field. By recalling their primary work, we can accurately match them to their respective contributions.
Here's how we match each scientist to their contribution:
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Matching A. Sutton and Boveri:
- Walter Sutton and Theodor Boveri independently proposed the Chromosomal Theory of Inheritance in the early 1900s. They observed that the behaviour of chromosomes during meiosis (reduction division) and fertilization perfectly paralleled the behaviour of Mendel's "factors" (genes). This led them to conclude that chromosomes are the carriers of genetic material.
- Therefore, A matches iii. Chromosomal theory of inheritance.
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Matching B. Alfred Sturtevant:
- Alfred Sturtevant was a student of T.H. Morgan. Based on Morgan's work on linkage and recombination in Drosophila, Sturtevant realized that the frequency of recombination between two linked genes is directly proportional to the distance between them on the chromosome. He used this principle to construct the first chromosome maps (also known as genetic maps), showing the relative positions of genes on a chromosome.
- Therefore, B matches i. Chromosome map.
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Matching C. Hugo de Vries:
- Hugo de Vries was one of the three scientists (along with Carl Correns and Erich von Tschermak) who independently rediscovered Mendel's laws of inheritance in 1900. He also proposed the concept of mutation, observing sudden, heritable changes in the evening primrose (Oenothera lamarckiana). He suggested that these mutations were the source of new variations and the raw material for evolution.
- Therefore, C matches ii. Mutation.
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Matching D. T.H. Morgan:
- Thomas Hunt Morgan conducted extensive experiments on the fruit fly (Drosophila melanogaster). His work provided strong experimental evidence for the chromosomal theory of inheritance. He discovered the phenomenon of linkage, demonstrating that genes located on the same chromosome tend to be inherited together. He also explained recombination as a result of crossing over between homologous chromosomes.
- Therefore, D matches iv. Linkage.
Combining these matches, we get:
A - iii
B - i
C - ii
D - iv
Comparing this with the given options:
(A) A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv
(B) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv
(C) A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv
(D) A-ii, B-iv, C-ii, D-iii
The correct combination is found in option (A).
✓Final answerThe correct option is (A), matching Sutton and Boveri with the chromosomal theory of inheritance, Alfred Sturtevant with chromosome mapping, Hugo de Vries with mutation, and T.H. Morgan with linkage.
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- TG EAPCET 2023Set ap-2023-05-11-FN1 markMCQQ.Phenylketonuria, sickle cell anemia and cystic fibrosis are caused respectively due to (A) Chromosome 7, Chromosome 11, Chromosome 12 (B) Chromosome 12, Chromosome 11, Chromosome 7 (C) Chromosome 11, Chromosome 18, Chromosome 9 (D) Chromosome 18, Chromosome 11, Chromosome 9
›Reveal solutionSolution
Each disorder is linked to a specific human chromosome: phenylketonuria (chromosome 12), sickle cell anemia (chromosome 11), and cystic fibrosis (chromosome 7). The correct order is Chromosome 12, Chromosome 11, Chromosome 7, which matches option (B).
The question tests your recall of which chromosomes carry the defective genes for three well-known autosomal recessive disorders. This is a standard fact in human genetics, often asked in exams to check whether you’ve memorized the chromosomal locations of common disease genes. The key is to associate each disorder with its specific gene and chromosome number — not just the disease name.
Let’s break it down one by one.
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Phenylketonuria (PKU)
PKU is caused by a mutation in the gene for the enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase, which converts phenylalanine to tyrosine. This gene is located on chromosome 12. Without the enzyme, phenylalanine builds up and causes intellectual disability if untreated.
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Sickle cell anemia
This is a hemoglobin disorder — a point mutation in the beta-globin gene leads to abnormal hemoglobin S. The beta-globin gene is on chromosome 11. The mutation changes a single amino acid (glutamic acid to valine), causing red blood cells to sickle under low oxygen.
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Cystic fibrosis
Cystic fibrosis results from mutations in the CFTR gene (cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator), which codes for a chloride ion channel. This gene is found on chromosome 7. Defective CFTR leads to thick mucus in the lungs, pancreas, and other organs.
Watch outA common mistake is to mix up the chromosome numbers for PKU and cystic fibrosis. Remember: PKU = chromosome 12, CF = chromosome 7. Sickle cell anemia is always chromosome 11.
Now match the order given in the question: phenylketonuria, sickle cell anemia, cystic fibrosis. That’s chromosome 12, then 11, then 7.
✓Final answerThe correct option is (B) — Chromosome 12, Chromosome 11, Chromosome 7.
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- TG EAPCET 2022Set ap-2022-07-31-FN1 markMCQQ.Match the following lists: List - I A) Separation of homologous chromosomes B) Initiation of chromosomal pairing C) Chromosomal clustering at opposite spindle poles D) Disc shaped part of centromere List - II I) Telophase II) Kinetochore III) Anaphase - I IV) Synapsis The correct match is: (A) I III II IV (B) III IV I II (C) III I IV II (D) II I IV III
›Reveal solutionSolution
This question tests your knowledge of meiosis phases and chromosome structures. The correct matches are: A→III (Anaphase I), B→IV (Synapsis), C→I (Telophase), D→II (Kinetochore), so the answer is option (B).
The key is to recall the specific events of meiosis and the parts of a chromosome. Each term in List-I describes a distinct process or structure, and you need to pair it with the correct phase or component from List-II.
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A) Separation of homologous chromosomes
Homologous chromosomes (one from each parent) separate during Anaphase I of meiosis. This is the reductional division where the chromosome number is halved. So A matches III) Anaphase - I.
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B) Initiation of chromosomal pairing
The pairing of homologous chromosomes begins in Prophase I and is called synapsis. This forms bivalents. So B matches IV) Synapsis.
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C) Chromosomal clustering at opposite spindle poles
After chromosomes move to the poles, they cluster together during Telophase I (or Telophase II, but here the context is meiosis I). The nuclear envelope may reform. So C matches I) Telophase.
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D) Disc shaped part of centromere
The kinetochore is the disc-shaped protein structure on the centromere where spindle fibers attach. So D matches II) Kinetochore.
Watch outA common mistake is confusing "separation of homologous chromosomes" (Anaphase I) with "separation of sister chromatids" (Anaphase II). Also, synapsis occurs only in Prophase I, not in mitosis.
Thus, the correct pairing is:
A → III, B → IV, C → I, D → II.
✓Final answerThe correct option is (B).
ANSWER: B
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- TG EAPCET 2022Set ap-2022-07-31-AN1 markMCQQ.Formation of synaptonemal complex and the stage(s) at which it is best visible. (A) Leptotene (B) Zygotene only (C) Zygotene and pachytene (D) Pachytene and pachytene
›Reveal solutionSolution
The synaptonemal complex forms during zygotene and is best visible during pachytene, so the correct option is (C).
The synaptonemal complex is a protein structure that forms between homologous chromosomes during meiosis I. Its job is to hold the paired homologs together tightly so that crossing over can happen. Without it, the precise exchange of genetic material between non-sister chromatids would be impossible.
The key to this question is knowing the sequence of prophase I stages: leptotene → zygotene → pachytene → diplotene → diakinesis. Each stage has a distinct chromosomal event, and the synaptonemal complex appears and disappears at specific points.
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Leptotene — Chromosomes begin to condense and become visible as thin threads. Homologs are still unpaired. No synaptonemal complex is present yet. So option (A) is wrong.
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Zygotene — Homologous chromosomes start to pair up in a process called synapsis. As they align side by side, the synaptonemal complex begins to assemble between them. This is the stage where the complex forms, but it is not yet fully mature or at its most visible.
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Pachytene — Synapsis is complete. The synaptonemal complex is now fully formed and holds the homologs together along their entire length. This is the stage where the complex is best visible under a microscope. Crossing over occurs here, facilitated by the complex.
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Diplotene — The synaptonemal complex disassembles and the homologs begin to separate, though they remain attached at chiasmata (the sites of crossing over). The complex is no longer visible.
Watch outA common mistake is to think the synaptonemal complex is best visible when it forms (zygotene). But formation is gradual; the structure is thin and incomplete. It is thickest and most distinct in pachytene, after full assembly.
So the complex forms in zygotene and is best visible in pachytene. That means it is present and observable in both stages, making option (C) the correct choice.
TipRemember the mnemonic: Leptotene (thin threads), Zygotene (zipping up — synapsis begins), Pachytene (packed — full synapsis, crossing over), Diplotene (double — chiasmata visible), Diakinesis (disappearing — nuclear envelope breaks). The synaptonemal complex is the "zipper" that appears in Z and is fully closed in P.
✓Final answerThe correct option is (C) Zygotene and pachytene.
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- TG EAPCET 2022Set ap-2022-07-31-AN1 markMCQQ.Choose the correct statements from the following according to G.J. Mendel. A) In self-pollinated heterozygous tall F1 plants, some off springs of F2 were dwarf. B) The factors to express specific characters are present in the genes of an organism. C) The symbol for dominance tall will be ‘T’ and recessive is ‘d’ dwarf. D) Genes that code for a pair of contrasting traits are known as alleles. (A) A, B, D only (B) A, B, C only (C) B, C, D only (D) A, C, D only
›Reveal solutionSolution
Mendel's work established that traits are controlled by paired factors (alleles), dominance masks recessiveness in heterozygotes, and recessive traits reappear in F₂. Statement C uses incorrect notation for the recessive allele. The correct statements are A, B, and D only.
Mendel's experiments with pea plants revealed the fundamental principles of inheritance. He worked with contrasting traits—tall versus dwarf, round versus wrinkled seeds—and discovered that these traits are controlled by discrete "factors" (what we now call genes) that exist in pairs. When these paired factors differ, one may mask the other; the visible trait comes from the dominant factor, while the recessive factor remains hidden but can reappear in later generations.
Let's evaluate each statement against Mendel's actual findings and the conventions that arose from his work:
Evaluating the statements
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Statement A: "In self-pollinated heterozygous tall F₁ plants, some offspring of F₂ were dwarf."
This is the cornerstone of Mendel's monohybrid cross. When he crossed pure-breeding tall plants (TT) with pure-breeding dwarf plants (tt), all F₁ offspring were tall (Tt—heterozygous). Self-pollinating these F₁ plants produced an F₂ generation with a 3:1 ratio—three tall to one dwarf. The dwarf plants (tt) reappeared because each parent contributed a recessive allele. This reappearance of the recessive phenotype in F₂ was Mendel's evidence that factors do not blend but remain discrete.
Statement A is correct.
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Statement B: "The factors to express specific characters are present in the genes of an organism."
Mendel called them "factors"; we call them genes. Each gene carries the information for a specific character (height, seed shape, etc.). The statement correctly captures that these hereditary units—genes—are what determine an organism's traits. While Mendel did not know the physical nature of genes (DNA, chromosomes), he correctly inferred their existence and behavior.
Statement B is correct.
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Statement C: "The symbol for dominance tall will be 'T' and recessive is 'd' dwarf."
The standard genetic notation uses the same letter for both alleles of a gene, with uppercase for dominant and lowercase for recessive. For the height gene, if we use T for the dominant (tall) allele, the recessive (dwarf) allele must be t, not d. Using different letters (T and d) would incorrectly suggest two unrelated genes rather than two forms of the same gene.
Statement C is incorrect due to faulty notation.
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Statement D: "Genes that code for a pair of contrasting traits are known as alleles."
This is the definition of alleles. A gene is a locus (position) on a chromosome; alleles are the alternative forms of that gene. For the height gene, T (tall) and t (dwarf) are alleles—different versions coding for contrasting expressions of the same trait. Mendel's insight was that these alternatives segregate during gamete formation, so each gamete carries only one allele of each gene.
Statement D is correct.
Watch outA common mistake is to use different letters for dominant and recessive alleles of the same gene (e.g., T and d). Always use the same letter: uppercase for dominant, lowercase for recessive (T and t).
✓Final answerThe correct option is (A) — statements A, B, and D only are correct according to Mendel's principles.
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- TG EAPCET 2021Set ap-2021-08-10-FN1 markMCQQ.Identify the behaviour of genes among the following. A) Segregate at gamete formation, only one of each pair is transmitted to a gamete B) Independent pairs segregate independently C) Genes will not be modified at any time D) Starch synthesis in pea seeds is not controlled by one gene (A) A, B (B) B, C (C) A, D (D) B, D
›Reveal solutionSolution
The question tests Mendel’s laws of segregation and independent assortment, plus the fact that genes can be modified and that starch synthesis in peas is controlled by a single gene. The correct statements are A and B, so the answer is option (A).
Concept & Intuition
This question is about the core principles of Mendelian genetics. Mendel’s first law (segregation) says that during gamete formation, the two alleles of a gene separate so each gamete gets only one. His second law (independent assortment) says that genes on different chromosomes sort independently. Statements C and D are false: genes can be altered by mutation, and starch synthesis in pea seeds is indeed controlled by a single gene (the r gene, where wrinkled peas have a defective starch-branching enzyme). So only A and B are correct.
Step-by-step reasoning
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Statement A: “Segregate at gamete formation, only one of each pair is transmitted to a gamete”
This is a direct restatement of Mendel’s law of segregation. During meiosis, homologous chromosomes (and thus the alleles on them) separate, so each gamete receives exactly one allele from each gene pair. True.
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Statement B: “Independent pairs segregate independently”
This is Mendel’s law of independent assortment. It applies to genes located on different chromosomes (or far apart on the same chromosome). For such genes, the allele a gamete receives for one gene does not affect the allele it receives for another. True.
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Statement C: “Genes will not be modified at any time”
This is false. Genes can be modified by mutations (point mutations, insertions, deletions, etc.), epigenetic changes, or recombination. The constancy of genes is not a principle of genetics. False.
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Statement D: “Starch synthesis in pea seeds is not controlled by one gene”
This is also false. In Mendel’s classic pea experiments, the round vs. wrinkled seed trait is controlled by a single gene (the r gene). The dominant allele (R) produces a functional starch-branching enzyme, leading to round seeds; the recessive allele (r) produces a defective enzyme, leading to wrinkled seeds. So starch synthesis is controlled by one gene. False.
Thus, only statements A and B are correct.
Watch outA common mistake is to think that independent assortment applies to all gene pairs. It only applies to genes on different chromosomes or far apart on the same chromosome. But in this question, statement B is given as a general principle, which is correct in the context of Mendel’s laws.
TipRemember: Mendel’s laws are about inheritance patterns, not about gene stability or the number of genes controlling a trait. Always check if a statement contradicts basic experimental facts (like the pea starch gene).
✓Final answerThe correct option is (A).
ANSWER: A
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