Q.If π(π + π β π₯) = π(π₯), then β« π₯ π(π₯)ππ₯ π π is equal to
(A) π+π 2 β« π(π β π₯)ππ₯ π π
(B) π+π 2 β« π(π β π₯)ππ₯ π π
(C) πβπ 2 β« π(π₯) ππ₯ π π
(D) π+π 2 β« π(π₯)ππ₯ π π
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Start your 14-day free trial to unlock the full solution βThe King Property lets us replace with in a definite integral. When , the integral simplifies to , which matches option (D).
The King Property is one of those beautiful symmetries in definite integrals. It says:
Why? Because the substitution simply reverses the interval β the limits swap, but the minus sign from flips them back. Itβs a pure renaming of the variable of integration.
Now, the problem gives us an extra condition: . That means the function is symmetric about the midpoint of . When that happens, the King Property becomes even more powerful β it lets us relate integrals of to integrals of itself.
Letβs work through it.
- Start with the integral we want:
- Apply the King substitution: let . Then , and . When , ; when , . So:
The two minus signs cancel (one from , one from swapping limits), giving:
- Use the given condition: . So:
- Now split the integral:
But the second term is exactly again (just with the dummy variable instead of ). So:
β¦
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