Q.Justify the following statement, with valid reason. ‘‘Ex-ante Aggregate Demand is always equal to Ex-ante Aggregate Supply.’’
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Start your 14-day free trial to unlock the full solution →The statement is incorrect. Ex-ante (planned) aggregate demand equals ex-ante aggregate supply only at the equilibrium level of income — not always. It is ex-post (realised) AD and AS that are always equal, by the national-income accounting identity.
The statement confuses an equilibrium condition with an accounting identity. In the NCERT Class-12 macroeconomics framework (Determination of Income and Employment), we must separate ex-ante (planned, intended) magnitudes from ex-post (realised, actual) ones.
Ex-ante AD and Ex-ante AS
- Ex-ante Aggregate Demand is the total planned expenditure on final goods and services at each level of income: (planned consumption + planned investment), extended to in an open economy.
- Ex-ante Aggregate Supply is the planned output that producers intend to make available, which equals planned national income: .
Households, firms and other agents form these plans independently, so at an arbitrary level of income there is no reason for planned spending () to equal planned output (). They coincide only when planned investment equals planned saving ().
Why they are equal only at equilibrium
Equilibrium income is defined precisely by , i.e. . Away from that single level of income the two plans are unequal:
- If ex-ante ex-ante (planned planned ): planned spending exceeds planned output, inventories fall below the desired level, so firms raise output and employment.
- If ex-ante ex-ante (planned planned ): planned spending falls short of planned output, unsold goods pile up as unplanned inventory accumulation, so firms cut output and employment.
This adjustment continues until ex-ante AD and ex-ante AS become equal — i.e. until the economy reaches equilibrium. So their equality is the outcome of adjustment, not something that holds at every income level. …
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