Skip to content
Question 366 of 373

Q.If 𝑓(π‘Ž + 𝑏 βˆ’ π‘₯) = 𝑓(π‘₯), then ∫ π‘₯ 𝑓(π‘₯)𝑑π‘₯ 𝑏 π‘Ž is equal to
(A) π‘Ž+𝑏 2 ∫ 𝑓(𝑏 βˆ’ π‘₯)𝑑π‘₯ 𝑏 π‘Ž
(B) π‘Ž+𝑏 2 ∫ 𝑓(π‘Ž βˆ’ π‘₯)𝑑π‘₯ 𝑏 π‘Ž
(C) π‘βˆ’π‘Ž 2 ∫ 𝑓(π‘₯) 𝑑π‘₯ 𝑏 π‘Ž
(D) π‘Ž+𝑏 2 ∫ 𝑓(π‘₯)𝑑π‘₯ 𝑏 π‘Ž

Yanam BieapSample paperMCQΒ· 1mImportanceβ˜…β˜…β˜…β˜…β˜…
Appeared in past exams:GUJCET 2022Β· Set 08Β· 1mexactCOMEDK 2021Β· Set 2021-BΒ· 1mrewordedGUJCET 2020Β· Set 07Β· 1mexact
98% Β· 366/373 Questions
πŸ”’ Locked Β· start free trial β†’

You're viewing a preview β€” the full solution, concept, methods & PYQ mapping are locked.

Start your 14-day free trial to unlock the full solution β†’

The King Property lets us replace xx with a+bβˆ’xa+b-x in a definite integral. When f(a+bβˆ’x)=f(x)f(a+b-x)=f(x), the integral ∫abxf(x) dx\int_a^b x f(x)\,dx simplifies to a+b2∫abf(x) dx\frac{a+b}{2}\int_a^b f(x)\,dx, which matches option (D).

The King Property is one of those beautiful symmetries in definite integrals. It says:

∫abf(x) dx=∫abf(a+bβˆ’x) dx\int_a^b f(x)\,dx = \int_a^b f(a+b-x)\,dx

Why? Because the substitution xβ†’a+bβˆ’xx \to a+b-x simply reverses the interval β€” the limits swap, but the minus sign from dxdx flips them back. It’s a pure renaming of the variable of integration.

Now, the problem gives us an extra condition: f(a+bβˆ’x)=f(x)f(a+b-x) = f(x). That means the function is symmetric about the midpoint of [a,b][a,b]. When that happens, the King Property becomes even more powerful β€” it lets us relate integrals of xf(x)x f(x) to integrals of f(x)f(x) itself.

Let’s work through it.

  1. Start with the integral we want:

I=∫abx f(x) dxI = \int_a^b x\,f(x)\,dx

  1. Apply the King substitution: let t=a+bβˆ’xt = a+b-x. Then x=a+bβˆ’tx = a+b-t, and dx=βˆ’dtdx = -dt. When x=ax=a, t=bt=b; when x=bx=b, t=at=a. So:

I=∫abx f(x) dx=∫ba(a+bβˆ’t) f(a+bβˆ’t) (βˆ’dt)I = \int_a^b x\,f(x)\,dx = \int_b^a (a+b-t)\,f(a+b-t)\,(-dt)

The two minus signs cancel (one from dtdt, one from swapping limits), giving:

I=∫ab(a+bβˆ’t) f(a+bβˆ’t) dtI = \int_a^b (a+b-t)\,f(a+b-t)\,dt

  1. Use the given condition: f(a+bβˆ’t)=f(t)f(a+b-t) = f(t). So:

I=∫ab(a+bβˆ’t) f(t) dtI = \int_a^b (a+b-t)\,f(t)\,dt

  1. Now split the integral:

I=∫ab(a+b) f(t) dtβˆ’βˆ«abt f(t) dtI = \int_a^b (a+b)\,f(t)\,dt - \int_a^b t\,f(t)\,dt

But the second term is exactly II again (just with the dummy variable tt instead of xx). So:

I=(a+b)∫abf(t) dtβˆ’II = (a+b)\int_a^b f(t)\,dt - I …

Unlock everything free for 14 days

  • Full step-by-step solutions
  • Concept-first explanations
  • Methods, shortcuts & mistakes
  • PYQ mapping + timed mock tests

Full access for 14 days. No credit card required.