Q.Integrate the following function: (1+x)2xex
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Antiderivatives by Inspection
The idea
Many integrals do not need a formal method at all. If you already know the derivative of some standard function, you can often recognise the answer just by looking — you spot which function differentiates to give the integrand, then adjust a constant if needed. This is finding an antiderivative by inspection: read the integrand backwards through your table of derivatives.
Integration is the reverse of differentiation, so a strong memory of standard derivatives is really a table of standard integrals read the other way.
Straight recognition
Because dxd(sinx)=cosx, you immediately write ∫cosxdx=sinx+C. No working — you inspect and recognise. The same holds for the standard list: ∫sec2xdx=tanx+C, ∫exdx=ex+C, ∫x1dx=log∣x∣+C, and so on.
Guess-and-adjust
Often the integrand is close to a known derivative but off by a constant factor. You guess the likely antiderivative, differentiate it mentally, and rescale so it matches.
Example: find ∫cos2xdx. Guess sin2x. Differentiating gives 2cos2x — twice too big — so divide the guess by 2:
∫cos2xdx=21sin2x+C.
Example: ∫(2x+1)5dx. Guess (2x+1)6; its derivative is 6(2x+1)5⋅2=12(2x+1)5, so divide by 12:
∫(2x+1)5dx=121(2x+1)6+C.
The one safeguard …
The key idea is to rewrite the integrand so that the Power Rule for integration (or a standard form) applies, often after noticing a derivative relationship.
We have:
∫(1+x)2xexdx
Step 1: Write the numerator as xex=(x+1−1)ex=(x+1)ex−ex.
Step 2: Split the fraction:
∫(1+x)2(x+1)exdx−∫(1+x)2exdx=∫1+xexdx−∫(1+x)2exdx …
The key idea is to rewrite the integrand as a derivative of a simpler product using the quotient rule in reverse. The integral evaluates to 1+xex+C.
We are integrating (1+x)2xex. At first glance, this looks like a candidate for integration by parts, but there is a more elegant approach. Notice the denominator (1+x)2 and the numerator xex. The presence of ex and a polynomial suggests that the derivative of something like 1+xex might appear.
Let’s check: differentiate 1+xex using the quotient rule:
dxd(1+xex)=(1+x)2ex(1+x)−ex⋅1=(1+x)2ex(1+x−1)=(1+x)2xex.
That is exactly our integrand! So the integral is simply the antiderivative we just found.
Now, let’s work through it step by step to see why this works and how you might spot it yourself.
-
Recognize the pattern: The integrand has a denominator (1+x)2 and a numerator with ex times x. When you see ex multiplied by a rational function, think about the derivative of somethingex. The derivative of exf(x) is ex(f(x)+f′(x)), but here the denominator is squared, hinting at a quotient rule structure.
-
Guess a candidate: Try F(x)=1+xex. Compute its derivative:
F′(x)=(1+x)2ex(1+x)−ex=(1+x)2xex.
This matches perfectly. So the antiderivative is F(x)+C.
- Verify by differentiation: If you are ever unsure, differentiate your answer. Here,
dxd(1+xex+C)=(1+x)2xex,
confirming correctness. …
Method: The ex(f(x)+f′(x)) shortcut
Whenever an integrand is ex times a bracket that is a function plus its own derivative, the answer is simply ex times that function:
∫ex(f(x)+f′(x))dx=exf(x)+C.
Steps
Step 1: Isolate the ex factor and look at what multiplies it.
Step 2: Try to split the multiplier as f(x)+f′(x).
Guess a candidate f(x) (often the "nicer" of the two pieces, or the part left after a x1-type term), then check that its derivative supplies the remaining piece. …
Common Mistakes
Mistake 1: Not recognising the ex(f+f′) pattern hidden by the algebra.
Why it's wrong: (1+x)2x=1+x1−(1+x)21, which is f+f′ with f=1+x1. Correct approach: rewrite before integrating.
Mistake 2: Getting the sign of f′(x) wrong. …
Showing the 12 most recent of 51 on this concept.
- AP EAPCET 2026Set eng-2026-05-12-FN1 markMCQQ.If ∫(1+2x4−5x8)2x7+x11dx=8(1+2x4−5x8)xn+c, then n= (A) 10 (B) 8 (C) 16 (D) 12
›Reveal solutionSolution
Differentiate the proposed antiderivative form with unknown power n, expand, and match coefficients against the given integrand (x7+x11)/D2 — this pins down n=8.
Concept and Intuition
When an integral is given already in "answer form" with an unknown parameter, the fastest and most reliable check is reverse engineering: differentiate the claimed antiderivative and see what power n makes it reproduce the original integrand exactly.
Step-by-Step Solution
- Let D(x)=1+2x4−5x8, so D′(x)=8x3−40x7.
- We're told ∫D(x)2x7+x11dx=8D(x)xn+c. Differentiate the RHS using the quotient rule: dxd[8Dxn]=81⋅D2nxn−1D−xnD′.
- This must equal D2x7+x11, so: nxn−1D−xnD′=8(x7+x11).
- Try n=8: 8x7⋅D−x8⋅D′=8x7(1+2x4−5x8)−x8(8x3−40x7) =8x7+16x11−40x15−8x11+40x15 =8x7+(16−8)x11+(−40+40)x15=8x7+8x11. …
- AP EAPCET 2026Set eng-2026-05-12-FN1 markMCQQ.If g(x) and f(x) are twice differentiable functions, then ∫(f′′(x)g(x)−g′′(x)f(x))dx= (A) g2(x)dxd(g(x)f(x)) (B) f2(x)dxd(g′(x)f′(x)) (C) dxd(g′′(x)f′′(x))g2(x) (D) dxd(g(x)f′(x))g2(x)
›Reveal solutionSolution
The integrand f′′g−g′′f is exactly the derivative of f′g−fg′, which in turn is g2 times the derivative of the quotient f/g — a classic "spot the exact derivative" integration trick.
Concept and Intuition
Rather than integrating term by term, recognize that many such expressions are secretly the derivative of a simpler combination. Here, differentiating f′g−fg′ reproduces the given integrand exactly, so no actual "integration" work is needed — just pattern recognition, followed by rewriting the result using the quotient rule identity.
Step-by-Step Solution
- Consider the candidate antiderivative h(x)=f′(x)g(x)−f(x)g′(x).
- Differentiate: h′(x)=[f′′(x)g(x)+f′(x)g′(x)]−[f′(x)g′(x)+f(x)g′′(x)] =f′′(x)g(x)−g′′(x)f(x) (the f′g′ terms cancel).
- This is exactly the given integrand! So ∫(f′′(x)g(x)−g′′(x)f(x))dx=f′(x)g(x)−f(x)g′(x)+c.
- Now recall the quotient rule: dxd(g(x)f(x))=g2(x)f′(x)g(x)−f(x)g′(x).
- So f′(x)g(x)−f(x)g′(x)=g2(x)⋅dxd(g(x)f(x)). …
- AP EAPCET 2026Set eng-2026-05-13-FN1 markMCQQ.If ∫bsinx+4cosx2sinx+acosxdx=52x−51log(bsinx+4cosx)+c, then a+b= (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5
›Reveal solutionSolution
Split the numerator as A(denom)+B(denom′) so the integral becomes
Ax+Blog∣denom∣; matching this to the given A=2/5, B=−1/5 pins down
b=3 and a=1, so a+b=4.
Concept and Intuition
Any integral of the form ∫rsinx+scosxpsinx+qcosxdx can always be
written as Ax+Blog∣rsinx+scosx∣+c, because
psinx+qcosx can always be decomposed uniquely as A(rsinx+scosx)+B(rcosx−ssinx) — a multiple of the denominator plus a multiple of its derivative.
Step-by-Step Solution
- Let denom =bsinx+4cosx; its derivative is bcosx−4sinx.
- Write 2sinx+acosx=A(bsinx+4cosx)+B(bcosx−4sinx).
- Matching sinx: 2=Ab−4B. Matching cosx: a=4A+Bb.
- The integral of A+denomB⋅denom′ is Ax+Blog∣denom∣+c; comparing to the given 52x−51log(⋅)+c gives A=52, B=−51. …
- AP EAPCET 2026Set eng-2026-05-14-AN1 markMCQQ.If ∫3cosx+4sinx2cosx+3sinxdx=Ax+Blog∣3cosx+4sinx∣+c, then A⋅B= (A) −62518 (B) 62518 (C) −2518 (D) 2518
›Reveal solutionSolution
This is the standard "express numerator as a·(denominator) + b·(derivative of denominator)" trick for ∫ccosx+dsinxacosx+bsinxdx; solving the linear system gives A⋅B=−62518.
Concept and Intuition
Whenever the integrand is a ratio of two linear combinations of sinx,cosx, the denominator's own derivative (also a combination of sinx,cosx) together with the denominator itself spans the same 2-D space as the numerator. So we can always write numerator =A⋅(denominator)+B⋅(denominator)′, turning the integral into Ax+Blog∣denominator∣+c directly.
Step-by-Step Solution
- Let D=3cosx+4sinx, so D′=−3sinx+4cosx.
- Write 2cosx+3sinx=AD+BD′=A(3cosx+4sinx)+B(−3sinx+4cosx).
- Match cosx coefficients: 3A+4B=2.
- Match sinx coefficients: 4A−3B=3.
- Solve: multiply the first by 3 and the second by 4: 9A+12B=6, 16A−12B=12. Adding, 25A=18⇒A=2518. …
- AP EAPCET 2026Set eng-2026-05-13-AN1 markMCQQ.∫(1+(logx)2logx−1)2dx= (A) 1+x2xex+c (B) 1+(logx)2x+c (C) (logx)2+1logx+c (D) x2+1x+c
›Reveal solutionSolution
The integrand is recognized as the derivative of 1+(logx)2x via the quotient rule, so the antiderivative is that expression directly.
Concept and Intuition
Many integrals involving logx in a rational combination are disguised derivatives of a simple quotient P(logx)x. The strategy is to guess a plausible antiderivative form (informed by the structure of the options) and verify by differentiating.
Step-by-Step Solution
- Guess g(x)=1+(logx)2x (matching option B's form).
- Differentiate using the quotient rule: g′(x)=(1+(logx)2)21⋅(1+(logx)2)−x⋅2logx⋅x1.
- Simplify numerator: (1+(logx)2)−2logx=1−2logx+(logx)2=(logx−1)2.
- So g′(x)=(1+(logx)2)2(logx−1)2=(1+(logx)2logx−1)2, exactly the integrand. …
- AP EAPCET 2026Set eng-2026-05-15-AN1 markMCQQ.∫(x+1)3x−1exdx= (A) (x+1)2ex+c (B) (x+1)2−ex+c (C) (x+1)2ex+c (D) (x+1)4−ex+c
›Reveal solutionSolution
The integrand fits the classic ∫ex[f(x)+f′(x)]dx=exf(x)+c pattern with f(x)=1/(x+1)2, giving the answer (x+1)2ex+c directly, with no further integration needed.
Concept and Intuition
Whenever an integrand has the shape ex times a sum of a function and its derivative, the antiderivative is simply ex times that function — because dxd[exf(x)]=exf(x)+exf′(x)=ex[f(x)+f′(x)]. Recognizing this pattern converts a seemingly hard rational-times-exponential integral into pure algebra: just guess f(x) and check.
Step-by-Step Solution
- Guess f(x)=(x+1)21, motivated by the (x+1)3 in the denominator (one power lower after differentiating).
- Compute f′(x)=dxd(x+1)−2=−2(x+1)−3=(x+1)3−2.
- Form f(x)+f′(x)=(x+1)21−(x+1)32=(x+1)3(x+1)−2=(x+1)3x−1.
- This exactly matches the given integrand (x+1)3x−1. …
- AP EAPCET 2026Set eng-2026-05-18-FN1 markMCQQ.∫(x4+1)5/41dx= (A) −(x4+1)1/44 (B) (x4+1)1/41 (C) (x4+1)1/4x (D) −(x4+1)1/42
›Reveal solutionSolution
A power-pulling substitution (t=1+x−4) reduces this to a simple power-rule integral; the answer is (x4+1)1/4x+c.
Concept and Intuition
When an integrand is a power of (xn+1) with an awkward fractional exponent, factoring out xn from inside the bracket and substituting t=1+x−n often converts it into a clean power-rule integral in t.
Step-by-Step Solution
- Write x4+1=x4(1+x−4), so
(x4+1)5/4=x5(1+x−4)5/4.
- The integrand becomes
(x4+1)5/41=x−5(1+x−4)−5/4.
- Let t=1+x−4, so dt=−4x−5dx ⇒ x−5dx=−4dt.
- The integral becomes
∫−41t−5/4dt=−41⋅−1/4t−1/4+c=t−1/4+c.
- Substitute back: t−1/4=(1+x−4)−1/4=[x4x4+1]−1/4=(x4+1)1/4x. …
- AP EAPCET 2026Set eng-2026-05-18-FN1 markMCQQ.If ∫x2+1x2−x+1eCot−1xdx=A(x)eCot−1x+c, then A(x)= (A) −x (B) x (C) 1−x (D) 1+x
›Reveal solutionSolution
Match the integrand to the derivative pattern of A(x)eCot−1x; the function that works is A(x)=x.
Concept and Intuition
Integrals of the form ∫eθ(x)[⋯]dx=A(x)eθ(x)+c are recognized by reverse-engineering the product rule: dxd[A(x)eθ(x)]=A′(x)eθ(x)+A(x)θ′(x)eθ(x). Here θ(x)=Cot−1x has θ′(x)=−1+x21, so we need A′(x)−1+x2A(x) to equal the given coefficient.
Step-by-Step Solution
- Simplify the coefficient: x2+1x2−x+1=x2+1(x2+1)−x=1−x2+1x.
- We need A(x) with
A′(x)−1+x2A(x)=1−1+x2x.
- Try A(x)=x, so A′(x)=1:
1−1+x2x=1−1+x2x ✓
This matches exactly.
4. So ∫x2+1x2−x+1eCot−1xdx=xeCot−1x+c, giving A(x)=x. …
- AP EAPCET 2025Set eng-2025-05-21-FN1 markMCQQ.∫2(sinx−3)2esinx(sin2x−8cosx)dx= (A) esinx(sinx−3)+c (B) (sinx−3)2esinx+c (C) esinx(sinx−3)2+c (D) sinx−3esinx+c
›Reveal solutionSolution
A "∫ef(x)[g(x)+g′(x)]"-style integral in disguise — substitute t=sinx and recognize the resulting rational-times-exponential as the derivative of t−3et. Answer: sinx−3esinx+c.
Concept and Intuition
The identity ∫eu[h(u)+h′(u)]du=euh(u)+c is the key trick behind many "exponential times trig" integrals. After substituting t=sinx, the goal is to spot the integrand as et[t−31−(t−3)21], which is precisely dtd[t−3et] by the quotient rule.
Step-by-Step Solution
- Expand sin2x=2sinxcosx in the numerator:
esinx(sin2x−8cosx)=esinxcosx(2sinx−8)=2esinxcosx(sinx−4).
- The integral becomes
∫2(sinx−3)22esinxcosx(sinx−4)dx=∫(sinx−3)2esinxcosx(sinx−4)dx.
- Substitute t=sinx⇒dt=cosxdx:
∫et(t−3)2t−4dt.
- Decompose (t−3)2t−4 via partial fractions: write t−4=A(t−3)+B. At t=3: B=−1. Matching the t-coefficient: A=1. So (t−3)2t−4=t−31−(t−3)21. …
- AP EAPCET 2025Set eng-2025-05-21-FN1 markMCQQ.If ∫(3t2sint1−tcost1)dt=f(t)sin(t1)+c, then f(2)= (A) 2 (B) −12 (C) 8 (D) −16
›Reveal solutionSolution
Reverse-engineer f(t) by matching the product-rule expansion of f(t)sin(1/t) to the given integrand term by term. Answer: f(2)=8.
Concept and Intuition
If ∫g(t)dt=f(t)sin(t1)+c, then differentiating both sides must reproduce g(t) exactly:
g(t)=f′(t)sin(t1)+f(t)cos(t1)⋅(−t21).
Matching the sin(1/t)-coefficient and the cos(1/t)-coefficient of the given g(t)=3t2sint1−tcost1 to this template pins down f.
Step-by-Step Solution
- Assume the antiderivative has the stated form f(t)sin(1/t)+c; differentiate:
dtd[f(t)sint1]=f′(t)sint1−t2f(t)cost1.
- This must equal 3t2sint1−tcost1.
- Match the sin(1/t) terms: f′(t)=3t2⟹f(t)=t3+C0.
- Match the cos(1/t) terms: −t2f(t)=−t⟹f(t)=t3 — consistent with step 3 (so C0=0).
- Thus f(t)=t3, and f(2)=23=8. …
- AP EAPCET 2025Set eng-2025-05-21-AN1 markMCQQ.If ∫esinx(1+secxtanx)dx=esinxf(x)+c, then in 0≤x≤2π, the number of solutions of f(x)=1 is (A) 4 (B) 0 (C) 2 (D) 3
›Reveal solutionSolution
Recognize the integrand as the derivative of esinxsecx, identify f(x)=secx, then count solutions of secx=1 on [0,2π]. Answer: 2.
Concept and Intuition
Many integrals of the form ∫eg(x)(g′(x)h(x)+h′(x))dx are exact derivatives of eg(x)h(x) via the product rule. Spotting this pattern converts the integration problem into recognizing a product-rule expansion, rather than grinding through substitution.
Step-by-Step Solution
- Try h(x)=secx with g(x)=sinx. Then
dxd[esinxsecx]=esinxcosx⋅secx+esinx⋅secxtanx=esinx⋅1+esinxsecxtanx=esinx(1+secxtanx).
- This exactly matches the given integrand, so
∫esinx(1+secxtanx)dx=esinxsecx+c⟹f(x)=secx.
- Solve f(x)=1: secx=1⟺cosx=1⟺x=2nπ. …
- AP EAPCET 2025Set eng-2025-05-22-FN1 markMCQQ.∫sinx−cosxsinx+cosxdx= (A) −x+log∣cosx−sinx∣+c (B) x−log∣cosx−sinx∣+c (C) −log∣cosx−sinx∣+c (D) log∣cosx−sinx∣+c
›Reveal solutionSolution
The numerator is exactly the derivative of the denominator, so this is a direct ∫f′(x)/f(x)dx=log∣f(x)∣ integral, giving log∣cosx−sinx∣+c.
Concept and Intuition
Whenever the numerator of a rational trigonometric integrand is (up to a constant) the derivative of the denominator, the integral is immediately a logarithm — no partial fractions or trig identities needed.
Step-by-Step Solution
- Let u=sinx−cosx. Then dxdu=cosx+sinx, which is exactly the numerator.
- So ∫sinx−cosxsinx+cosxdx=∫udu=log∣u∣+c=log∣sinx−cosx∣+c.
- Since ∣sinx−cosx∣=∣−(cosx−sinx)∣=∣cosx−sinx∣, this is the same as log∣cosx−sinx∣+c. …
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