Q.Integrate the following function: ex(1+cosx1+sinx)
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Antiderivatives by Inspection
The idea
Many integrals do not need a formal method at all. If you already know the derivative of some standard function, you can often recognise the answer just by looking — you spot which function differentiates to give the integrand, then adjust a constant if needed. This is finding an antiderivative by inspection: read the integrand backwards through your table of derivatives.
Integration is the reverse of differentiation, so a strong memory of standard derivatives is really a table of standard integrals read the other way.
Straight recognition
Because dxd(sinx)=cosx, you immediately write ∫cosxdx=sinx+C. No working — you inspect and recognise. The same holds for the standard list: ∫sec2xdx=tanx+C, ∫exdx=ex+C, ∫x1dx=log∣x∣+C, and so on.
Guess-and-adjust
Often the integrand is close to a known derivative but off by a constant factor. You guess the likely antiderivative, differentiate it mentally, and rescale so it matches.
Example: find ∫cos2xdx. Guess sin2x. Differentiating gives 2cos2x — twice too big — so divide the guess by 2:
∫cos2xdx=21sin2x+C.
Example: ∫(2x+1)5dx. Guess (2x+1)6; its derivative is 6(2x+1)5⋅2=12(2x+1)5, so divide by 12:
∫(2x+1)5dx=121(2x+1)6+C.
The one safeguard …
The key idea is to rewrite the integrand into a form that matches a known derivative — specifically, the derivative of exf(x) is ex(f(x)+f′(x)).
We want to express ex(1+cosx1+sinx) as ex(f(x)+f′(x)).
First, simplify the fraction:
1+cosx1+sinx=1+cosx1+sinx
A useful trick: multiply numerator and denominator by (1−cosx) or use half-angle identities. Using sinx=2sin2xcos2x and 1+cosx=2cos22x, we get:
1+cosx1+sinx=2cos22x1+2sin2xcos2x=2cos22x1+cos2xsin2x=21sec22x+tan2x …
The key idea is to rewrite the integrand as ex times a sum of a function and its derivative, so that the integral simplifies via the formula ∫ex[f(x)+f′(x)]dx=exf(x)+C. The final result is extan2x+C.
Why This Approach Works
When you see an integral of the form ∫ex⋅(something)dx, your first instinct should be to check if that "something" can be expressed as f(x)+f′(x). Why? Because there's a beautiful shortcut:
∫ex[f(x)+f′(x)]dx=exf(x)+C
This is a direct consequence of the product rule: dxd[exf(x)]=exf(x)+exf′(x). So if your integrand matches that pattern, the answer is simply exf(x).
Our integrand is ex(1+cosx1+sinx). The challenge is to rewrite 1+cosx1+sinx as f(x)+f′(x) for some cleverly chosen f(x).
Step-by-Step Solution
1. Simplify the trigonometric fraction using half-angle identities.
Recall the standard half-angle formulas:
- 1+cosx=2cos22x
- sinx=2sin2xcos2x
- 1+sinx=(sin2x+cos2x)2 (this is less common but useful)
Let's verify that last one: (sin2x+cos2x)2=sin22x+cos22x+2sin2xcos2x=1+sinx. Perfect.
So:
1+cosx1+sinx=2cos22x(sin2x+cos2x)2
2. Split the square into two terms.
2cos22x(sin2x+cos2x)2=21(cos2xsin2x+cos2x)2=21(tan2x+1)2
Now expand:
21(tan22x+2tan2x+1)
3. Use the identity tan2θ=sec2θ−1 to simplify.
21[(sec22x−1)+2tan2x+1]=21(sec22x+2tan2x)
The −1 and +1 cancel neatly. So:
1+cosx1+sinx=21sec22x+tan2x
4. Spot the f(x)+f′(x) pattern.
Let f(x)=tan2x. Then: …
Method: The ex(f(x)+f′(x)) shortcut
Whenever an integrand is ex times a bracket that is a function plus its own derivative, the answer is simply ex times that function:
∫ex(f(x)+f′(x))dx=exf(x)+C.
Steps
Step 1: Isolate the ex factor and look at what multiplies it.
Step 2: Try to split the multiplier as f(x)+f′(x).
Guess a candidate f(x) (often the "nicer" of the two pieces, or the part left after a x1-type term), then check that its derivative supplies the remaining piece. …
Common Mistakes
Mistake 1: Trying to integrate 1+cosx1+sinx without simplifying.
Why it's wrong: it looks intractable until you use half-angle identities 1+cosx=2cos22x and 1+sinx=(cos2x+sin2x)2. Correct approach: simplify to 21sec22x+tan2x, which is f+f′ with f=tan2x.
Mistake 2: Differentiating tan2x without the inner 21. …
Showing the 12 most recent of 51 on this concept.
- AP EAPCET 2026Set eng-2026-05-12-FN1 markMCQQ.If ∫(1+2x4−5x8)2x7+x11dx=8(1+2x4−5x8)xn+c, then n= (A) 10 (B) 8 (C) 16 (D) 12
›Reveal solutionSolution
Differentiate the proposed antiderivative form with unknown power n, expand, and match coefficients against the given integrand (x7+x11)/D2 — this pins down n=8.
Concept and Intuition
When an integral is given already in "answer form" with an unknown parameter, the fastest and most reliable check is reverse engineering: differentiate the claimed antiderivative and see what power n makes it reproduce the original integrand exactly.
Step-by-Step Solution
- Let D(x)=1+2x4−5x8, so D′(x)=8x3−40x7.
- We're told ∫D(x)2x7+x11dx=8D(x)xn+c. Differentiate the RHS using the quotient rule: dxd[8Dxn]=81⋅D2nxn−1D−xnD′.
- This must equal D2x7+x11, so: nxn−1D−xnD′=8(x7+x11).
- Try n=8: 8x7⋅D−x8⋅D′=8x7(1+2x4−5x8)−x8(8x3−40x7) =8x7+16x11−40x15−8x11+40x15 =8x7+(16−8)x11+(−40+40)x15=8x7+8x11. …
- AP EAPCET 2026Set eng-2026-05-12-FN1 markMCQQ.If g(x) and f(x) are twice differentiable functions, then ∫(f′′(x)g(x)−g′′(x)f(x))dx= (A) g2(x)dxd(g(x)f(x)) (B) f2(x)dxd(g′(x)f′(x)) (C) dxd(g′′(x)f′′(x))g2(x) (D) dxd(g(x)f′(x))g2(x)
›Reveal solutionSolution
The integrand f′′g−g′′f is exactly the derivative of f′g−fg′, which in turn is g2 times the derivative of the quotient f/g — a classic "spot the exact derivative" integration trick.
Concept and Intuition
Rather than integrating term by term, recognize that many such expressions are secretly the derivative of a simpler combination. Here, differentiating f′g−fg′ reproduces the given integrand exactly, so no actual "integration" work is needed — just pattern recognition, followed by rewriting the result using the quotient rule identity.
Step-by-Step Solution
- Consider the candidate antiderivative h(x)=f′(x)g(x)−f(x)g′(x).
- Differentiate: h′(x)=[f′′(x)g(x)+f′(x)g′(x)]−[f′(x)g′(x)+f(x)g′′(x)] =f′′(x)g(x)−g′′(x)f(x) (the f′g′ terms cancel).
- This is exactly the given integrand! So ∫(f′′(x)g(x)−g′′(x)f(x))dx=f′(x)g(x)−f(x)g′(x)+c.
- Now recall the quotient rule: dxd(g(x)f(x))=g2(x)f′(x)g(x)−f(x)g′(x).
- So f′(x)g(x)−f(x)g′(x)=g2(x)⋅dxd(g(x)f(x)). …
- AP EAPCET 2026Set eng-2026-05-13-FN1 markMCQQ.If ∫bsinx+4cosx2sinx+acosxdx=52x−51log(bsinx+4cosx)+c, then a+b= (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5
›Reveal solutionSolution
Split the numerator as A(denom)+B(denom′) so the integral becomes
Ax+Blog∣denom∣; matching this to the given A=2/5, B=−1/5 pins down
b=3 and a=1, so a+b=4.
Concept and Intuition
Any integral of the form ∫rsinx+scosxpsinx+qcosxdx can always be
written as Ax+Blog∣rsinx+scosx∣+c, because
psinx+qcosx can always be decomposed uniquely as A(rsinx+scosx)+B(rcosx−ssinx) — a multiple of the denominator plus a multiple of its derivative.
Step-by-Step Solution
- Let denom =bsinx+4cosx; its derivative is bcosx−4sinx.
- Write 2sinx+acosx=A(bsinx+4cosx)+B(bcosx−4sinx).
- Matching sinx: 2=Ab−4B. Matching cosx: a=4A+Bb.
- The integral of A+denomB⋅denom′ is Ax+Blog∣denom∣+c; comparing to the given 52x−51log(⋅)+c gives A=52, B=−51. …
- AP EAPCET 2026Set eng-2026-05-14-AN1 markMCQQ.If ∫3cosx+4sinx2cosx+3sinxdx=Ax+Blog∣3cosx+4sinx∣+c, then A⋅B= (A) −62518 (B) 62518 (C) −2518 (D) 2518
›Reveal solutionSolution
This is the standard "express numerator as a·(denominator) + b·(derivative of denominator)" trick for ∫ccosx+dsinxacosx+bsinxdx; solving the linear system gives A⋅B=−62518.
Concept and Intuition
Whenever the integrand is a ratio of two linear combinations of sinx,cosx, the denominator's own derivative (also a combination of sinx,cosx) together with the denominator itself spans the same 2-D space as the numerator. So we can always write numerator =A⋅(denominator)+B⋅(denominator)′, turning the integral into Ax+Blog∣denominator∣+c directly.
Step-by-Step Solution
- Let D=3cosx+4sinx, so D′=−3sinx+4cosx.
- Write 2cosx+3sinx=AD+BD′=A(3cosx+4sinx)+B(−3sinx+4cosx).
- Match cosx coefficients: 3A+4B=2.
- Match sinx coefficients: 4A−3B=3.
- Solve: multiply the first by 3 and the second by 4: 9A+12B=6, 16A−12B=12. Adding, 25A=18⇒A=2518. …
- AP EAPCET 2026Set eng-2026-05-13-AN1 markMCQQ.∫(1+(logx)2logx−1)2dx= (A) 1+x2xex+c (B) 1+(logx)2x+c (C) (logx)2+1logx+c (D) x2+1x+c
›Reveal solutionSolution
The integrand is recognized as the derivative of 1+(logx)2x via the quotient rule, so the antiderivative is that expression directly.
Concept and Intuition
Many integrals involving logx in a rational combination are disguised derivatives of a simple quotient P(logx)x. The strategy is to guess a plausible antiderivative form (informed by the structure of the options) and verify by differentiating.
Step-by-Step Solution
- Guess g(x)=1+(logx)2x (matching option B's form).
- Differentiate using the quotient rule: g′(x)=(1+(logx)2)21⋅(1+(logx)2)−x⋅2logx⋅x1.
- Simplify numerator: (1+(logx)2)−2logx=1−2logx+(logx)2=(logx−1)2.
- So g′(x)=(1+(logx)2)2(logx−1)2=(1+(logx)2logx−1)2, exactly the integrand. …
- AP EAPCET 2026Set eng-2026-05-15-AN1 markMCQQ.∫(x+1)3x−1exdx= (A) (x+1)2ex+c (B) (x+1)2−ex+c (C) (x+1)2ex+c (D) (x+1)4−ex+c
›Reveal solutionSolution
The integrand fits the classic ∫ex[f(x)+f′(x)]dx=exf(x)+c pattern with f(x)=1/(x+1)2, giving the answer (x+1)2ex+c directly, with no further integration needed.
Concept and Intuition
Whenever an integrand has the shape ex times a sum of a function and its derivative, the antiderivative is simply ex times that function — because dxd[exf(x)]=exf(x)+exf′(x)=ex[f(x)+f′(x)]. Recognizing this pattern converts a seemingly hard rational-times-exponential integral into pure algebra: just guess f(x) and check.
Step-by-Step Solution
- Guess f(x)=(x+1)21, motivated by the (x+1)3 in the denominator (one power lower after differentiating).
- Compute f′(x)=dxd(x+1)−2=−2(x+1)−3=(x+1)3−2.
- Form f(x)+f′(x)=(x+1)21−(x+1)32=(x+1)3(x+1)−2=(x+1)3x−1.
- This exactly matches the given integrand (x+1)3x−1. …
- AP EAPCET 2026Set eng-2026-05-18-FN1 markMCQQ.∫(x4+1)5/41dx= (A) −(x4+1)1/44 (B) (x4+1)1/41 (C) (x4+1)1/4x (D) −(x4+1)1/42
›Reveal solutionSolution
A power-pulling substitution (t=1+x−4) reduces this to a simple power-rule integral; the answer is (x4+1)1/4x+c.
Concept and Intuition
When an integrand is a power of (xn+1) with an awkward fractional exponent, factoring out xn from inside the bracket and substituting t=1+x−n often converts it into a clean power-rule integral in t.
Step-by-Step Solution
- Write x4+1=x4(1+x−4), so
(x4+1)5/4=x5(1+x−4)5/4.
- The integrand becomes
(x4+1)5/41=x−5(1+x−4)−5/4.
- Let t=1+x−4, so dt=−4x−5dx ⇒ x−5dx=−4dt.
- The integral becomes
∫−41t−5/4dt=−41⋅−1/4t−1/4+c=t−1/4+c.
- Substitute back: t−1/4=(1+x−4)−1/4=[x4x4+1]−1/4=(x4+1)1/4x. …
- AP EAPCET 2026Set eng-2026-05-18-FN1 markMCQQ.If ∫x2+1x2−x+1eCot−1xdx=A(x)eCot−1x+c, then A(x)= (A) −x (B) x (C) 1−x (D) 1+x
›Reveal solutionSolution
Match the integrand to the derivative pattern of A(x)eCot−1x; the function that works is A(x)=x.
Concept and Intuition
Integrals of the form ∫eθ(x)[⋯]dx=A(x)eθ(x)+c are recognized by reverse-engineering the product rule: dxd[A(x)eθ(x)]=A′(x)eθ(x)+A(x)θ′(x)eθ(x). Here θ(x)=Cot−1x has θ′(x)=−1+x21, so we need A′(x)−1+x2A(x) to equal the given coefficient.
Step-by-Step Solution
- Simplify the coefficient: x2+1x2−x+1=x2+1(x2+1)−x=1−x2+1x.
- We need A(x) with
A′(x)−1+x2A(x)=1−1+x2x.
- Try A(x)=x, so A′(x)=1:
1−1+x2x=1−1+x2x ✓
This matches exactly.
4. So ∫x2+1x2−x+1eCot−1xdx=xeCot−1x+c, giving A(x)=x. …
- AP EAPCET 2025Set eng-2025-05-21-FN1 markMCQQ.∫2(sinx−3)2esinx(sin2x−8cosx)dx= (A) esinx(sinx−3)+c (B) (sinx−3)2esinx+c (C) esinx(sinx−3)2+c (D) sinx−3esinx+c
›Reveal solutionSolution
A "∫ef(x)[g(x)+g′(x)]"-style integral in disguise — substitute t=sinx and recognize the resulting rational-times-exponential as the derivative of t−3et. Answer: sinx−3esinx+c.
Concept and Intuition
The identity ∫eu[h(u)+h′(u)]du=euh(u)+c is the key trick behind many "exponential times trig" integrals. After substituting t=sinx, the goal is to spot the integrand as et[t−31−(t−3)21], which is precisely dtd[t−3et] by the quotient rule.
Step-by-Step Solution
- Expand sin2x=2sinxcosx in the numerator:
esinx(sin2x−8cosx)=esinxcosx(2sinx−8)=2esinxcosx(sinx−4).
- The integral becomes
∫2(sinx−3)22esinxcosx(sinx−4)dx=∫(sinx−3)2esinxcosx(sinx−4)dx.
- Substitute t=sinx⇒dt=cosxdx:
∫et(t−3)2t−4dt.
- Decompose (t−3)2t−4 via partial fractions: write t−4=A(t−3)+B. At t=3: B=−1. Matching the t-coefficient: A=1. So (t−3)2t−4=t−31−(t−3)21. …
- AP EAPCET 2025Set eng-2025-05-21-FN1 markMCQQ.If ∫(3t2sint1−tcost1)dt=f(t)sin(t1)+c, then f(2)= (A) 2 (B) −12 (C) 8 (D) −16
›Reveal solutionSolution
Reverse-engineer f(t) by matching the product-rule expansion of f(t)sin(1/t) to the given integrand term by term. Answer: f(2)=8.
Concept and Intuition
If ∫g(t)dt=f(t)sin(t1)+c, then differentiating both sides must reproduce g(t) exactly:
g(t)=f′(t)sin(t1)+f(t)cos(t1)⋅(−t21).
Matching the sin(1/t)-coefficient and the cos(1/t)-coefficient of the given g(t)=3t2sint1−tcost1 to this template pins down f.
Step-by-Step Solution
- Assume the antiderivative has the stated form f(t)sin(1/t)+c; differentiate:
dtd[f(t)sint1]=f′(t)sint1−t2f(t)cost1.
- This must equal 3t2sint1−tcost1.
- Match the sin(1/t) terms: f′(t)=3t2⟹f(t)=t3+C0.
- Match the cos(1/t) terms: −t2f(t)=−t⟹f(t)=t3 — consistent with step 3 (so C0=0).
- Thus f(t)=t3, and f(2)=23=8. …
- AP EAPCET 2025Set eng-2025-05-21-AN1 markMCQQ.If ∫esinx(1+secxtanx)dx=esinxf(x)+c, then in 0≤x≤2π, the number of solutions of f(x)=1 is (A) 4 (B) 0 (C) 2 (D) 3
›Reveal solutionSolution
Recognize the integrand as the derivative of esinxsecx, identify f(x)=secx, then count solutions of secx=1 on [0,2π]. Answer: 2.
Concept and Intuition
Many integrals of the form ∫eg(x)(g′(x)h(x)+h′(x))dx are exact derivatives of eg(x)h(x) via the product rule. Spotting this pattern converts the integration problem into recognizing a product-rule expansion, rather than grinding through substitution.
Step-by-Step Solution
- Try h(x)=secx with g(x)=sinx. Then
dxd[esinxsecx]=esinxcosx⋅secx+esinx⋅secxtanx=esinx⋅1+esinxsecxtanx=esinx(1+secxtanx).
- This exactly matches the given integrand, so
∫esinx(1+secxtanx)dx=esinxsecx+c⟹f(x)=secx.
- Solve f(x)=1: secx=1⟺cosx=1⟺x=2nπ. …
- AP EAPCET 2025Set eng-2025-05-22-FN1 markMCQQ.∫sinx−cosxsinx+cosxdx= (A) −x+log∣cosx−sinx∣+c (B) x−log∣cosx−sinx∣+c (C) −log∣cosx−sinx∣+c (D) log∣cosx−sinx∣+c
›Reveal solutionSolution
The numerator is exactly the derivative of the denominator, so this is a direct ∫f′(x)/f(x)dx=log∣f(x)∣ integral, giving log∣cosx−sinx∣+c.
Concept and Intuition
Whenever the numerator of a rational trigonometric integrand is (up to a constant) the derivative of the denominator, the integral is immediately a logarithm — no partial fractions or trig identities needed.
Step-by-Step Solution
- Let u=sinx−cosx. Then dxdu=cosx+sinx, which is exactly the numerator.
- So ∫sinx−cosxsinx+cosxdx=∫udu=log∣u∣+c=log∣sinx−cosx∣+c.
- Since ∣sinx−cosx∣=∣−(cosx−sinx)∣=∣cosx−sinx∣, this is the same as log∣cosx−sinx∣+c. …
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