Q.If 3tan−1x+cot−1x=π, then x equals
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) −1
(D) 21
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🔒 Start your 14-day free trial to unlock the full solution →Concept understanding — Inverse Tangent Identity
Inverse Tangent Identities
The inverse tangent function obeys a family of addition and doubling identities that let you combine two arctangents into one. They come straight from the tangent addition formula, but they carry conditions you must respect.
The core addition identity
Start from tan(A+B)=1−tanAtanBtanA+tanB. Put A=tan−1x and B=tan−1y, so tanA=x and tanB=y. Then
tan−1x+tan−1y=tan−1(1−xyx+y),xy<1.
The restriction xy<1 keeps the combined angle inside the principal range (−π/2,π/2).
If xy>1 the raw formula lands in the wrong branch, so you must correct it:
tan−1x+tan−1y=π+tan−1(1−xyx+y) (x,y>0),
and −π+tan−1(⋅) when x,y<0. Ignoring this is the classic exam slip.
Subtraction
Replacing y with −y gives
tan−1x−tan−1y=tan−1(1+xyx−y),xy>−1.
The doubling identity
Set y=x in the addition formula:
2tan−1x=tan−1(1−x22x),−1<x<1.
The same angle can also be rewritten through sine and cosine, which is handy in integration and in proofs -- but each alternate form only matches 2tan−1x on part of its domain, so the two forms carry different conditions:
2tan−1x=sin−1(1+x22x),−1≤x≤1,
2tan−1x=cos−1(1+x21−x2),x≥0.
The cos−1 form needs x≥0 -- it fails for negative x. Check x=−1: 2tan−1(−1)=2(−4π)=−2π, but cos−1(1+11−1)=cos−1(0)=2π, the wrong sign entirely. The sin−1 form has no such restriction because sin−1 (unlike cos−1) can return a negative angle.
The complementary identity
For every real x,
tan−1x+cot−1x=2π.
This holds without restriction because tan−1 and cot−1 of the same value are complementary angles. …
Concept: Inverse Tangent Identity
We use the relation tan−1x+cot−1x=2π for all real x.
Given:
3tan−1x+cot−1x=π
Rewrite as:
2tan−1x+(tan−1x+cot−1x)=π
Substitute the identity:
2tan−1x+2π=π
Thus: …
The key idea is to use the identity tan−1x+cot−1x=2π to simplify the given equation. Substituting this reduces the problem to 2tan−1x=2π, giving x=1.
We start with the equation:
3tan−1x+cot−1x=π
The core insight here is the inverse tangent identity: for any real x, tan−1x+cot−1x=2π. This holds because tan−1x and cot−1x are complementary angles — their sum is always a right angle. This identity is the backbone of the solution.
Let’s work through it step by step.
- Apply the identity Replace cot−1x with 2π−tan−1x:
3tan−1x+(2π−tan−1x)=π
- Simplify the left-hand side Combine the tan−1x terms:
(3tan−1x−tan−1x)+2π=π
2tan−1x+2π=π
- Isolate the inverse tangent term Subtract 2π from both sides:
2tan−1x=π−2π=2π
- Solve for tan−1x Divide by 2:
tan−1x=4π
- Take the tangent of both sides Since tan(tan−1x)=x and tan4π=1, we get: …
Method: Solving equations that mix tan−1 and cot−1
When an equation contains both tan−1x and cot−1x of the same variable, collapse them with the complementary identity so only one inverse function remains.
Steps
Step 1: Isolate one complementary pair.
Group the coefficients so that a matched tan−1x+cot−1x appears. For example, split 3tan−1x as 2tan−1x+tan−1x so the leftover tan−1x can pair with cot−1x.
Step 2: Apply the complementary identity.
Use, valid for every real x,
tan−1x+cot−1x=2π.
Replacing the pair turns the equation into one purely in tan−1x.
Step 3: Solve the reduced single-function equation. …
Common Mistakes
Mistake 1: Trying to combine 3tan−1x+cot−1x with a single addition formula.
Why it's wrong: they are different inverse functions with a coefficient of 3; no direct addition identity applies. Correct approach: split 3tan−1x=2tan−1x+tan−1x and pair one tan−1x with cot−1x.
Mistake 2: Writing tan−1x+cot−1x=π instead of 2π. …
Showing the 12 most recent of 34 on this concept.
- AP EAPCET 2021Set eng-2021-08-19-AN1 markMCQQ.dxd(Tan−1(1+sinxcosx))= (A) 21 (B) 2−1 (C) 1 (D) −1
›Reveal solutionSolution
Simplify the argument to a single tangent of a half-angle expression, then differentiate. Answer: −21.
Concept and Intuition
Expressions like 1+sinxcosx are classic half-angle simplifications that collapse to tan(4π−2x), letting the inverse tangent cancel with the tangent directly.
Step-by-Step Solution
- Multiply numerator and denominator by (1−sinx): 1+sinxcosx=1−sin2xcosx(1−sinx)=cos2xcosx(1−sinx)=cosx1−sinx.
- This is a known identity: cosx1−sinx=tan(4π−2x). …
- AP EAPCET 2025Set eng-2025-05-22-AN1 markMCQQ.If 21sin−1(5+4cos2θ3sin2θ)=tan−1x then x= (A) tan3θ (B) 31tanθ (C) tan3θ (D) 31tan3θ
›Reveal solutionSolution
Rewrite the inverse-sine argument as sin(2ϕ) for a suitable tanϕ built from tanθ, so the half of the inverse sine collapses to tan−1 of that quantity directly. Answer: x=31tanθ.
Concept and Intuition
Expressions of the form A+Bcos2θksin2θ can often be massaged, after dividing through by (1+tan2θ) i.e. converting to t=tanθ, into the recognizable double-angle sine pattern 1+u22u=sin(2tan−1u) for some rescaled variable u. Spotting this pattern converts an awkward inverse-trig expression into a clean angle.
Step-by-Step Solution
- Let t=tanθ. Recall sin2θ=1+t22t, cos2θ=1+t21−t2.
- Numerator: 3sin2θ=1+t26t.
- Denominator: 5+4cos2θ=5+1+t24(1−t2)=1+t25(1+t2)+4(1−t2)=1+t29+t2.
- So the ratio is (9+t2)/(1+t2)6t/(1+t2)=9+t26t.
- Let u=t/3. Then 1+u22u=1+t2/92t/3=(9+t2)/92t/3=9+t26t — exactly matches!
- So 9+t26t=sin(2ϕ) where tanϕ=u=t/3, i.e. ϕ=tan−1(3tanθ). …
- AP EAPCET 2024Set eng-2024-05-22-AN1 markMCQQ.If y=Tan−11+2x2x+Tan−11+6x2x+Tan−11+12x2x, then (dxdy)x=21= (A) 1 (B) −1 (C) 0 (D) 21
›Reveal solutionSolution
Recognize the telescoping arctan pattern to collapse y to arctan(4x)−arctan(x); the derivative at x=21 is 0.
Concept and Intuition
The identity arctanA−arctanB=arctan1+ABA−B (mod branch issues) means a sum like arctan1+n(n+1)x2x, recognized as arctan((n+1)x)−arctan(nx), telescopes when summed over consecutive n — a huge simplification before ever differentiating.
Step-by-Step Solution
- Check the general term: arctan((n+1)x)−arctan(nx)=arctan1+n(n+1)x2(n+1)x−nx=arctan1+n(n+1)x2x.
- Match given terms: 1+2x2x has n(n+1)=2⇒n=1; 1+6x2x has n(n+1)=6⇒n=2; 1+12x2x has n(n+1)=12⇒n=3.
- So y=[arctan2x−arctanx]+[arctan3x−arctan2x]+[arctan4x−arctan3x]=arctan4x−arctanx (everything else cancels). …
- AP EAPCET 2024Set eng-2024-05-21-AN1 markMCQQ.The real values of x that satisfy the equation tan−1x+tan−12x=4π is (A) 4−3±17 (B) −1±3 (C) 3−1 (D) 417−3
›Reveal solutionSolution
The key idea is to apply the inverse tangent addition formula tan−1a+tan−1b=tan−11−aba+b (with a domain check) and then solve the resulting quadratic, finally verifying which solutions satisfy the original equation. The only valid solution is 417−3, which corresponds to option (D).
We start with the equation
tan−1x+tan−12x=4π.
1. Recall the inverse tangent addition formula
For real numbers a and b with ab=1, we have
tan−1a+tan−1b=tan−11−aba+b+kπ,
where k is an integer chosen so that the sum lies in (−π/2,π/2) (the principal range of arctan).
Since the right-hand side is π/4, which is within (−π/2,π/2), we can safely take k=0 provided the sum of the two angles is indeed in that interval. We’ll check this later.
2. Apply the formula
Set a=x, b=2x. Then
tan−1x+tan−12x=tan−11−x⋅2xx+2x=tan−11−2x23x.
Thus the equation becomes
tan−11−2x23x=4π.
3. Remove the arctangent
Taking tangent of both sides (valid because both sides lie in (−π/2,π/2) for the moment), we get
1−2x23x=tan4π=1.
4. Solve the resulting equation
1−2x23x=1⇒3x=1−2x2.
Rearrange:
2x2+3x−1=0.
Solve using the quadratic formula:
x=4−3±9+8=4−3±17.
So the two candidates are
x1=4−3+17,x2=4−3−17.
5. Check domain and validity
We must ensure that for each candidate, the original sum of arctangents actually equals π/4 (not π/4+π or something else).
- For x2=4−3−17: …
- AP EAPCET 2025Set eng-2025-05-24-FN1 markMCQQ.For 0<x<1, ∫[Tan−1(1−x+x2)+Tan−1(1−x)]dx= (A) xCot−1x+log1+x2+c (B) xTan−1x−log(1+x2)+c (C) xCot−1x+43log(1+x2)+c (D) xTan−1x−43log1+x2+c
›Reveal solutionSolution
The two arctangent terms combine, via the tan-addition identity, into a single Cot−1x; integrating that by parts gives option (A).
Concept and Intuition
The stem looks intimidating because it has two separate inverse-tangent terms with messy arguments. The key insight is that Tan−1p+Tan−1q always collapses via
Tan−1p+Tan−1q=Tan−1(1−pqp+q) (mod π correction),
so it's worth testing whether p=1−x+x2 and q=1−x are designed to make 1−pqp+q simplify beautifully — which they are.
Step-by-Step Solution
- Compute p+q=(1−x+x2)+(1−x)=2−2x+x2.
- Compute pq=(1−x+x2)(1−x). Expanding: (1−x+x2)(1−x)=1−2x+2x2−x3.
- So 1−pq=1−(1−2x+2x2−x3)=2x−2x2+x3=x(2−2x+x2).
- Hence 1−pqp+q=x(2−2x+x2)2−2x+x2=x1.
- Check the correction term: for 0<x<1, 2−2x+x2=(x−1)2+1>0 and x>0, so 1−pq>0⇒pq<1, meaning the plain addition formula applies with no ±π shift.
- So the integrand is exactly Tan−1(1/x)=Cot−1x (valid since x>0).
- Now integrate by parts: ∫Cot−1xdx=xCot−1x−∫x⋅(1+x2−1)dx=xCot−1x+∫1+x2xdx.
- ∫1+x2xdx=21log(1+x2)=log1+x2.
- Total: xCot−1x+log1+x2+c. …
- AP EAPCET 2025Set eng-2025-05-23-AN1 markMCQQ.The number of solutions of Tan−11+21Cos−1x2−Tan−1(1+x2−1−x21+x2+1−x2)=0 is (A) 3 (B) 0 (C) 1 (D) infinitely many
›Reveal solutionSolution
This tests simplifying an inverse-trig expression via a trigonometric substitution, revealing that the equation is actually an identity over its whole domain. Answer: infinitely many solutions.
Concept and Intuition
The fraction 1+x2−1−x21+x2+1−x2 looks intimidating, but substituting x2=cosα converts 1±x2 into 2cos2(α/2) and 2sin2(α/2), turning the whole fraction into a clean tan(4π+2α). This is the standard trick for expressions of the form 1+x2±1−x2.
Step-by-Step Solution
- Domain: Cos−1(x2) needs x2∈[−1,1], and since x2≥0 always, effectively x2∈[0,1], i.e. x∈[−1,1]. Also need 1−x2 real, consistent.
- Let α=Cos−1(x2)∈[0,π/2] (since x2∈[0,1], α can only range over [0,π/2], not the full [0,π]).
- Then x2=cosα, so 1+x2=1+cosα=2cos2(α/2) and 1−x2=1−cosα=2sin2(α/2). Since α/2∈[0,π/4], both cos(α/2),sin(α/2)≥0, so 1+x2=2cos(α/2), 1−x2=2sin(α/2).
- The fraction becomes cos(α/2)−sin(α/2)cos(α/2)+sin(α/2)=1−tan(α/2)1+tan(α/2)=tan(4π+2α).
- Since α/2∈[0,π/4], we have 4π+2α∈[4π,2π), safely inside the principal range of Tan−1, so Tan−1[tan(4π+2α)]=4π+2α exactly (excluding x=0 where α=π/2 makes the denominator zero). …
- AP EAPCET 2026Set eng-2026-05-15-AN1 markMCQQ.sin[2tan−1(21)+sin−1(53)]= (A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 21 (D) 23
›Reveal solutionSolution
Convert both inverse-trig terms into a single angle's sine/cosine using right-triangle ratios, then apply the sine addition formula; the sum evaluates neatly to 1.
Concept and Intuition
When adding two inverse trig angles, the cleanest approach is to name each one, extract its sine and cosine from the implied right triangle, then use the standard addition formula sin(A+B)=sinAcosB+cosAsinB — never try to add the angles numerically.
Step-by-Step Solution
- Let φ=tan−1(21). In a right triangle, opposite =1, adjacent =2, hypotenuse =5.
- Use the double-angle identity tan2φ=1−tan2φ2tanφ=1−(1/4)2(1/2)=3/41=34.
- Since φ∈(0,π/4) (as tanφ=1/2<1), 2φ∈(0,π/2), so this is a genuine first-quadrant angle: with opposite 4, adjacent 3, hypotenuse 5, giving sin2φ=4/5, cos2φ=3/5.
- Let ψ=sin−1(3/5), so sinψ=3/5 and (principal branch, first quadrant) cosψ=4/5. …
- AP EAPCET 2026Set eng-2026-05-13-FN1 markMCQQ.The number of real solutions of the equation tan−1x(x+1)+sin−1x2+x+1=2π is (A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) Infinitely many
›Reveal solutionSolution
The domain restrictions of tan−1⋅ and sin−1⋅ force x(x+1)=0, giving exactly two real solutions, x=0 and x=−1.
Concept and Intuition
Before manipulating an inverse-trig equation, always pin down the domain first — here the two square roots and the sin−1 range constraint do almost all the work.
Step-by-Step Solution
- Let y=x2+x=x(x+1). For tan−1y to be real we need y≥0.
- Note x2+x+1=y+1. For sin−1y+1 to be defined we need 0≤y+1≤1, i.e. −1≤y≤0.
- Combining y≥0 and y≤0 forces y=0 exactly. …
- AP EAPCET 2024Set eng-2024-05-22-FN1 markMCQQ.The value of x such that sin(2tan−143)=cos(2tan−1x) is (A) 7 (B) 73 (C) 71 (D) 74
›Reveal solutionSolution
This tests the tangent double-angle formulas for both sine and cosine. Answer: x=1/7.
Concept and Intuition
Both sides are "double angle of an inverse tangent," so express each side purely in terms of the tangent using sin2θ=1+t22t and cos2ϕ=1+x21−x2 (both derivable from a right triangle with opposite/adjacent =t or x).
Step-by-Step Solution
- Let θ=tan−1(3/4), so tanθ=3/4.
- sin2θ=1+tan2θ2tanθ=1+9/162(3/4)=25/163/2=23⋅2516=2524.
- Let ϕ=tan−1x, so cos2ϕ=1+x21−x2.
- Equation: 1+x21−x2=2524. …
- AP EAPCET 2025Set eng-2025-05-21-FN1 markMCQQ.tan−115+18−215+tan−151= (A) 6π (B) 4π (C) 3π (D) 2π
›Reveal solutionSolution
This tests simplifying a nested surd inside an inverse trig function, then adding two inverse-tangent values. The answer is (A).
Concept and Intuition
A nested surd of the form a+b−2ab always simplifies to ∣a−b∣. Recognizing 8−215 as this form with a=5,b=3 turns an ugly expression into a clean one, after which the sum of the two arctangents can be identified as a standard angle.
Step-by-Step Solution
- Write 8−215=5+3−25⋅3=(5−3)2, so 8−215=5−3 (positive since 5>3).
- The first term becomes tan−115+15−3.
- Numerically: 5≈2.236, 3≈1.732, 15≈3.873. So the argument ≈4.8730.504≈0.1034, giving the first term ≈5.91°. …
- AP EAPCET 2021Set eng-2021-08-19-FN1 markMCQQ.If tan−1[1+1.21]+tan−1[1+2.31]+⋯+tan−1[1+n(n+1)1]=tan−1[x], then x= (A) n+11 (B) n+1n (C) n+21 (D) n+2n
›Reveal solutionSolution
Each term telescopes as tan−1(k+1)−tan−1(k); summing collapses the whole series to tan−1(n+2n), so x=n+2n.
Concept and Intuition
The key identity is tan−11+k(k+1)1=tan−1(k+1)−tan−1k, which follows from the tangent subtraction formula tan−1p−tan−1q=tan−11+pqp−q applied with p=k+1,q=k. Once each term is in this "difference" form, the whole sum telescopes, leaving only the first and last pieces.
Step-by-Step Solution
- Verify the telescoping identity: tan−1(k+1)−tan−1(k)=tan−11+(k+1)k(k+1)−k=tan−11+k(k+1)1. ✓ matches each term's form (with k=1,2,…,n).
- So the sum ∑k=1ntan−11+k(k+1)1=∑k=1n[tan−1(k+1)−tan−1(k)].
- This telescopes: all intermediate terms cancel, leaving tan−1(n+1)−tan−1(1).
- Apply the subtraction formula again: tan−1(n+1)−tan−1(1)=tan−11+(n+1)(1)(n+1)−1=tan−1n+2n. …
- AP EAPCET 2021Set eng-2021-08-20-AN1 markMCQQ.Tan−1(−2)−Tan−1(3) is equal to (A) 43π (B) 6−π (C) 6π (D) 4−3π
›Reveal solutionSolution
Convert to −(tan−12+tan−13) and apply the addition formula (with the +π correction since ab>1) to get −43π.
Concept and Intuition
tan−1 is an odd function, so tan−1(−x)=−tan−1(x). The standard addition formula tan−1a+tan−1b=tan−11−aba+b needs a +π correction whenever a,b>0 and ab>1, because then the true sum exceeds π/2 while the raw arctan formula would return a negative principal value.
Step-by-Step Solution
- tan−1(−2)=−tan−1(2), so the expression becomes −tan−1(2)−tan−1(3).
- Compute tan−12+tan−13. Here a=2,b=3, ab=6>1, both positive, so use tan−1a+tan−1b=π+tan−11−aba+b.
- 1−aba+b=1−65=−55=−1, and tan−1(−1)=−4π. …
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