Q.If sin−1(1+a22a)+cos−1(1+a21−a2)=tan−1(1−x22x), where a,x∈]0,1[, then the value of x is
(A) 0
(B) 2a
(C) a
(D) 1−a22a
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🔒 Start your 14-day free trial to unlock the full solution →Concept understanding — Inverse Tangent Identity
Inverse Tangent Identities
The inverse tangent function obeys a family of addition and doubling identities that let you combine two arctangents into one. They come straight from the tangent addition formula, but they carry conditions you must respect.
The core addition identity
Start from tan(A+B)=1−tanAtanBtanA+tanB. Put A=tan−1x and B=tan−1y, so tanA=x and tanB=y. Then
tan−1x+tan−1y=tan−1(1−xyx+y),xy<1.
The restriction xy<1 keeps the combined angle inside the principal range (−π/2,π/2).
If xy>1 the raw formula lands in the wrong branch, so you must correct it:
tan−1x+tan−1y=π+tan−1(1−xyx+y) (x,y>0),
and −π+tan−1(⋅) when x,y<0. Ignoring this is the classic exam slip.
Subtraction
Replacing y with −y gives
tan−1x−tan−1y=tan−1(1+xyx−y),xy>−1.
The doubling identity
Set y=x in the addition formula:
2tan−1x=tan−1(1−x22x),−1<x<1.
The same angle can also be rewritten through sine and cosine, which is handy in integration and in proofs -- but each alternate form only matches 2tan−1x on part of its domain, so the two forms carry different conditions:
2tan−1x=sin−1(1+x22x),−1≤x≤1,
2tan−1x=cos−1(1+x21−x2),x≥0.
The cos−1 form needs x≥0 -- it fails for negative x. Check x=−1: 2tan−1(−1)=2(−4π)=−2π, but cos−1(1+11−1)=cos−1(0)=2π, the wrong sign entirely. The sin−1 form has no such restriction because sin−1 (unlike cos−1) can return a negative angle.
The complementary identity
For every real x,
tan−1x+cot−1x=2π.
This holds without restriction because tan−1 and cot−1 of the same value are complementary angles. …
Concept: Standard inverse trigonometric substitutions — for a∈(0,1), let a=tanθ so that θ∈(0,π/4). Then simplify each term using the double-angle identities.
Let a=tanθ, θ∈(0,π/4). Then:
- 1+a22a=1+tan2θ2tanθ=sin2θ, so sin−1(sin2θ)=2θ (since 2θ∈(0,π/2)).
- 1+a21−a2=1+tan2θ1−tan2θ=cos2θ, so cos−1(cos2θ)=2θ (since 2θ∈(0,π/2)).
Thus the left side becomes 2θ+2θ=4θ. …
The problem uses the standard substitutions a=tanθ and x=tanϕ to simplify the inverse trigonometric expressions. The given equation reduces to 2θ+2θ=2ϕ, giving ϕ=2θ, so x=tan(2tan−1a)=1−a22a.
The core idea here is that when you see expressions like 1+a22a or 1+a21−a2, your mind should immediately jump to the tangent half-angle substitution. For a∈(0,1), we can set a=tanθ where θ∈(0,π/4). This turns those messy rational forms into clean trigonometric functions.
Why does this work? Because:
- sin(2θ)=1+tan2θ2tanθ=1+a22a
- cos(2θ)=1+tan2θ1−tan2θ=1+a21−a2
Similarly, for x∈(0,1), set x=tanϕ with ϕ∈(0,π/4), giving tan(2ϕ)=1−x22x.
Now the inverse trig functions become straightforward: sin−1(sin2θ)=2θ and cos−1(cos2θ)=2θ, because 2θ∈(0,π/2) — well within the principal ranges of both functions. And tan−1(tan2ϕ)=2ϕ since 2ϕ∈(0,π/2).
Let's work through it step by step.
- Substitute a=tanθ. Since a∈(0,1), we have θ∈(0,π/4). Then:
1+a22a=1+tan2θ2tanθ=sin2θ
1+a21−a2=1+tan2θ1−tan2θ=cos2θ
Both 2θ lies in (0,π/2), so the principal values of sin−1 and cos−1 give:
sin−1(sin2θ)=2θ,cos−1(cos2θ)=2θ
- Substitute x=tanϕ. With x∈(0,1), we get ϕ∈(0,π/4). Then:
1−x22x=1−tan2ϕ2tanϕ=tan2ϕ
Since 2ϕ∈(0,π/2), the principal value is:
tan−1(tan2ϕ)=2ϕ
- Rewrite the given equation. The original equation: …
Method: The t=tanθ substitution for standard rational arguments
Expressions 1+t22t, 1+t21−t2, and 1−t22t are the sine, cosine, and tangent of 2θ when t=tanθ. Substituting collapses inverse-trig equations into linear ones in θ.
Steps
Step 1: Substitute a tangent for each free variable.
Set a=tanθ (and x=tanϕ). Fix the range: since a∈(0,1), θ∈(0,4π); likewise for ϕ. Tracking these ranges is essential for Step 3.
Step 2: Rewrite the rational arguments as double-angle values.
Apply
1+t22t=sin2θ,1+t21−t2=cos2θ,1−t22t=tan2θ.
Step 3: Peel off the inverse functions — but only if the angle is in range. …
Common Mistakes
Mistake 1: Peeling off the inverse functions without checking the angle's range.
Why it's wrong: sin−1(sin2θ)=2θ (and similarly for cos−1) only holds while 2θ stays inside the principal range; otherwise a π−2θ correction is needed. Correct approach: the domain a,x∈(0,1) keeps 2θ,2ϕ∈(0,2π), so peeling off is valid.
Mistake 2: Miscounting the left side as 2θ instead of 4θ.
Why it's wrong: both sin−1 and cos−1 terms equal 2θ, so they add to 4θ. Correct approach: 4θ=2ϕ⇒ϕ=2θ⇒x=tan2θ=1−a22a. …
Showing the 12 most recent of 34 on this concept.
- AP EAPCET 2025Set eng-2025-05-22-AN1 markMCQQ.If 21sin−1(5+4cos2θ3sin2θ)=tan−1x then x= (A) tan3θ (B) 31tanθ (C) tan3θ (D) 31tan3θ
›Reveal solutionSolution
Rewrite the inverse-sine argument as sin(2ϕ) for a suitable tanϕ built from tanθ, so the half of the inverse sine collapses to tan−1 of that quantity directly. Answer: x=31tanθ.
Concept and Intuition
Expressions of the form A+Bcos2θksin2θ can often be massaged, after dividing through by (1+tan2θ) i.e. converting to t=tanθ, into the recognizable double-angle sine pattern 1+u22u=sin(2tan−1u) for some rescaled variable u. Spotting this pattern converts an awkward inverse-trig expression into a clean angle.
Step-by-Step Solution
- Let t=tanθ. Recall sin2θ=1+t22t, cos2θ=1+t21−t2.
- Numerator: 3sin2θ=1+t26t.
- Denominator: 5+4cos2θ=5+1+t24(1−t2)=1+t25(1+t2)+4(1−t2)=1+t29+t2.
- So the ratio is (9+t2)/(1+t2)6t/(1+t2)=9+t26t.
- Let u=t/3. Then 1+u22u=1+t2/92t/3=(9+t2)/92t/3=9+t26t — exactly matches!
- So 9+t26t=sin(2ϕ) where tanϕ=u=t/3, i.e. ϕ=tan−1(3tanθ). …
- AP EAPCET 2026Set eng-2026-05-12-FN1 markMCQQ.For b>a, the solution of the equation cot(cos−1x)=sec{tan−1b2−a2a} is (A) 2b2−a2b (B) 2b2−a2a (C) ab2−a2 (D) 2bb2−a2
›Reveal solutionSolution
This tests converting inverse trig expressions into right-triangle ratios and solving the resulting algebraic equation. The answer is x=2b2−a2b.
Concept and Intuition
For any inverse trig expression like tan−1(p/q), imagine a right triangle with opposite p and adjacent q; the hypotenuse follows from the Pythagorean theorem, and any other trig ratio of that same angle can then be read straight off the triangle. Applying this to both sides converts the equation into pure algebra in x.
Step-by-Step Solution
- Let θ=tan−1b2−a2a. In the corresponding right triangle: opposite =a, adjacent =b2−a2, so hypotenuse =a2+(b2−a2)=b.
- Hence secθ=adjhyp=b2−a2b.
- Let φ=cos−1x, so cosφ=x: adjacent =x, hypotenuse =1, opposite =1−x2.
- Hence cotφ=sinφcosφ=1−x2x.
- Equating: 1−x2x=b2−a2b. Squaring: 1−x2x2=b2−a2b2. …
- AP EAPCET 2021Set eng-2021-08-19-FN1 markMCQQ.If tan−1[1+1.21]+tan−1[1+2.31]+⋯+tan−1[1+n(n+1)1]=tan−1[x], then x= (A) n+11 (B) n+1n (C) n+21 (D) n+2n
›Reveal solutionSolution
Each term telescopes as tan−1(k+1)−tan−1(k); summing collapses the whole series to tan−1(n+2n), so x=n+2n.
Concept and Intuition
The key identity is tan−11+k(k+1)1=tan−1(k+1)−tan−1k, which follows from the tangent subtraction formula tan−1p−tan−1q=tan−11+pqp−q applied with p=k+1,q=k. Once each term is in this "difference" form, the whole sum telescopes, leaving only the first and last pieces.
Step-by-Step Solution
- Verify the telescoping identity: tan−1(k+1)−tan−1(k)=tan−11+(k+1)k(k+1)−k=tan−11+k(k+1)1. ✓ matches each term's form (with k=1,2,…,n).
- So the sum ∑k=1ntan−11+k(k+1)1=∑k=1n[tan−1(k+1)−tan−1(k)].
- This telescopes: all intermediate terms cancel, leaving tan−1(n+1)−tan−1(1).
- Apply the subtraction formula again: tan−1(n+1)−tan−1(1)=tan−11+(n+1)(1)(n+1)−1=tan−1n+2n. …
- AP EAPCET 2025Set eng-2025-05-23-AN1 markMCQQ.The number of solutions of Tan−11+21Cos−1x2−Tan−1(1+x2−1−x21+x2+1−x2)=0 is (A) 3 (B) 0 (C) 1 (D) infinitely many
›Reveal solutionSolution
This tests simplifying an inverse-trig expression via a trigonometric substitution, revealing that the equation is actually an identity over its whole domain. Answer: infinitely many solutions.
Concept and Intuition
The fraction 1+x2−1−x21+x2+1−x2 looks intimidating, but substituting x2=cosα converts 1±x2 into 2cos2(α/2) and 2sin2(α/2), turning the whole fraction into a clean tan(4π+2α). This is the standard trick for expressions of the form 1+x2±1−x2.
Step-by-Step Solution
- Domain: Cos−1(x2) needs x2∈[−1,1], and since x2≥0 always, effectively x2∈[0,1], i.e. x∈[−1,1]. Also need 1−x2 real, consistent.
- Let α=Cos−1(x2)∈[0,π/2] (since x2∈[0,1], α can only range over [0,π/2], not the full [0,π]).
- Then x2=cosα, so 1+x2=1+cosα=2cos2(α/2) and 1−x2=1−cosα=2sin2(α/2). Since α/2∈[0,π/4], both cos(α/2),sin(α/2)≥0, so 1+x2=2cos(α/2), 1−x2=2sin(α/2).
- The fraction becomes cos(α/2)−sin(α/2)cos(α/2)+sin(α/2)=1−tan(α/2)1+tan(α/2)=tan(4π+2α).
- Since α/2∈[0,π/4], we have 4π+2α∈[4π,2π), safely inside the principal range of Tan−1, so Tan−1[tan(4π+2α)]=4π+2α exactly (excluding x=0 where α=π/2 makes the denominator zero). …
- AP EAPCET 2021Set eng-2021-08-19-FN1 markMCQQ.If y=tan−1(1+x2−1−x21+x2+1−x2), where x2≤1. Then find dxdy (A) 4π+21cos−1(x2) (B) 4π−21cos−1(x2) (C) 1−x4−x (D) 1−x4−2x
›Reveal solutionSolution
Substituting x2=cosφ collapses the expression to y=π/4+21cos−1(x2), whose derivative is 1−x4−x.
Concept and Intuition
Nested-radical inverse-trig expressions like this are almost always designed to simplify via a trig substitution that turns 1±x2 into 2cos or 2sin of a half-angle, converting the whole ratio into a single tangent — much easier to differentiate than the raw radical expression.
Step-by-Step Solution
- Let x2=cosφ (valid since x2≤1). Then 1+x2=2cos2(φ/2) and 1−x2=2sin2(φ/2).
- So 1+x2=2cos(φ/2) and 1−x2=2sin(φ/2).
- The ratio becomes cos(φ/2)−sin(φ/2)cos(φ/2)+sin(φ/2)=1−tan(φ/2)1+tan(φ/2)=tan(4π+2φ).
- So y=tan−1[tan(4π+2φ)]=4π+2φ=4π+21cos−1(x2). …
- AP EAPCET 2024Set eng-2024-05-22-FN1 markMCQQ.The value of x such that sin(2tan−143)=cos(2tan−1x) is (A) 7 (B) 73 (C) 71 (D) 74
›Reveal solutionSolution
This tests the tangent double-angle formulas for both sine and cosine. Answer: x=1/7.
Concept and Intuition
Both sides are "double angle of an inverse tangent," so express each side purely in terms of the tangent using sin2θ=1+t22t and cos2ϕ=1+x21−x2 (both derivable from a right triangle with opposite/adjacent =t or x).
Step-by-Step Solution
- Let θ=tan−1(3/4), so tanθ=3/4.
- sin2θ=1+tan2θ2tanθ=1+9/162(3/4)=25/163/2=23⋅2516=2524.
- Let ϕ=tan−1x, so cos2ϕ=1+x21−x2.
- Equation: 1+x21−x2=2524. …
- AP EAPCET 2025Set eng-2025-05-24-FN1 markMCQQ.For 0<x<1, ∫[Tan−1(1−x+x2)+Tan−1(1−x)]dx= (A) xCot−1x+log1+x2+c (B) xTan−1x−log(1+x2)+c (C) xCot−1x+43log(1+x2)+c (D) xTan−1x−43log1+x2+c
›Reveal solutionSolution
The two arctangent terms combine, via the tan-addition identity, into a single Cot−1x; integrating that by parts gives option (A).
Concept and Intuition
The stem looks intimidating because it has two separate inverse-tangent terms with messy arguments. The key insight is that Tan−1p+Tan−1q always collapses via
Tan−1p+Tan−1q=Tan−1(1−pqp+q) (mod π correction),
so it's worth testing whether p=1−x+x2 and q=1−x are designed to make 1−pqp+q simplify beautifully — which they are.
Step-by-Step Solution
- Compute p+q=(1−x+x2)+(1−x)=2−2x+x2.
- Compute pq=(1−x+x2)(1−x). Expanding: (1−x+x2)(1−x)=1−2x+2x2−x3.
- So 1−pq=1−(1−2x+2x2−x3)=2x−2x2+x3=x(2−2x+x2).
- Hence 1−pqp+q=x(2−2x+x2)2−2x+x2=x1.
- Check the correction term: for 0<x<1, 2−2x+x2=(x−1)2+1>0 and x>0, so 1−pq>0⇒pq<1, meaning the plain addition formula applies with no ±π shift.
- So the integrand is exactly Tan−1(1/x)=Cot−1x (valid since x>0).
- Now integrate by parts: ∫Cot−1xdx=xCot−1x−∫x⋅(1+x2−1)dx=xCot−1x+∫1+x2xdx.
- ∫1+x2xdx=21log(1+x2)=log1+x2.
- Total: xCot−1x+log1+x2+c. …
- AP EAPCET 2026Set eng-2026-05-15-AN1 markMCQQ.sin[2tan−1(21)+sin−1(53)]= (A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 21 (D) 23
›Reveal solutionSolution
Convert both inverse-trig terms into a single angle's sine/cosine using right-triangle ratios, then apply the sine addition formula; the sum evaluates neatly to 1.
Concept and Intuition
When adding two inverse trig angles, the cleanest approach is to name each one, extract its sine and cosine from the implied right triangle, then use the standard addition formula sin(A+B)=sinAcosB+cosAsinB — never try to add the angles numerically.
Step-by-Step Solution
- Let φ=tan−1(21). In a right triangle, opposite =1, adjacent =2, hypotenuse =5.
- Use the double-angle identity tan2φ=1−tan2φ2tanφ=1−(1/4)2(1/2)=3/41=34.
- Since φ∈(0,π/4) (as tanφ=1/2<1), 2φ∈(0,π/2), so this is a genuine first-quadrant angle: with opposite 4, adjacent 3, hypotenuse 5, giving sin2φ=4/5, cos2φ=3/5.
- Let ψ=sin−1(3/5), so sinψ=3/5 and (principal branch, first quadrant) cosψ=4/5. …
- AP EAPCET 2026Set eng-2026-05-18-AN1 markMCQQ.Match the items of List - I with those of List - II List - I: A. Tan−13+Tan−1x=Tan−18⇒x= B. Sin−1x−Cos−1x=6π⇒x= C. Sin−154+2Tan−131= D. tan(Sec−1x1)=sin(Tan−12),x>0⇒x= List - II: I. 35 II. 51 III. 23 IV. 2π V. 3π The Correct Match is: (A) A-I, B-III, C-V, D-IV (B) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I (C) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-V (D) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-V
›Reveal solutionSolution
This is a match-the-column on inverse trig identities. Answer: A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I.
Concept and Intuition
Each item reduces via a standard inverse-trig identity: the tangent-addition formula, the complementary relation sin−1x+cos−1x=π/2, the double-angle formula for tan−1, and converting sec−1/tan−1 expressions into a right-triangle ratio.
Step-by-Step Solution
A. tan−13+tan−1x=tan−18. Take tangent of both sides: 1−3x3+x=8⇒3+x=8−24x⇒25x=5⇒x=51. Matches II.
B. sin−1x−cos−1x=6π, and always sin−1x+cos−1x=2π. Adding: 2sin−1x=2π+6π=32π⇒sin−1x=3π⇒x=sin3π=23. Matches III.
C. sin−154=tan−134 (right triangle with opposite 4, hypotenuse 5, adjacent 3). Also 2tan−131: using tan2θ=1−tan2θ2tanθ=1−1/92/3=8/92/3=43, so 2tan−131=tan−143. Sum =tan−134+tan−143; since 34×43=1 (reciprocal tangents), this sum is 2π. Matches IV. …
- AP EAPCET 2026Set eng-2026-05-13-FN1 markMCQQ.The number of real solutions of the equation tan−1x(x+1)+sin−1x2+x+1=2π is (A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) Infinitely many
›Reveal solutionSolution
The domain restrictions of tan−1⋅ and sin−1⋅ force x(x+1)=0, giving exactly two real solutions, x=0 and x=−1.
Concept and Intuition
Before manipulating an inverse-trig equation, always pin down the domain first — here the two square roots and the sin−1 range constraint do almost all the work.
Step-by-Step Solution
- Let y=x2+x=x(x+1). For tan−1y to be real we need y≥0.
- Note x2+x+1=y+1. For sin−1y+1 to be defined we need 0≤y+1≤1, i.e. −1≤y≤0.
- Combining y≥0 and y≤0 forces y=0 exactly. …
- AP EAPCET 2024Set eng-2024-05-22-AN1 markMCQQ.If y=Tan−11+2x2x+Tan−11+6x2x+Tan−11+12x2x, then (dxdy)x=21= (A) 1 (B) −1 (C) 0 (D) 21
›Reveal solutionSolution
Recognize the telescoping arctan pattern to collapse y to arctan(4x)−arctan(x); the derivative at x=21 is 0.
Concept and Intuition
The identity arctanA−arctanB=arctan1+ABA−B (mod branch issues) means a sum like arctan1+n(n+1)x2x, recognized as arctan((n+1)x)−arctan(nx), telescopes when summed over consecutive n — a huge simplification before ever differentiating.
Step-by-Step Solution
- Check the general term: arctan((n+1)x)−arctan(nx)=arctan1+n(n+1)x2(n+1)x−nx=arctan1+n(n+1)x2x.
- Match given terms: 1+2x2x has n(n+1)=2⇒n=1; 1+6x2x has n(n+1)=6⇒n=2; 1+12x2x has n(n+1)=12⇒n=3.
- So y=[arctan2x−arctanx]+[arctan3x−arctan2x]+[arctan4x−arctan3x]=arctan4x−arctanx (everything else cancels). …
- AP EAPCET 2026Set eng-2026-05-13-AN1 markMCQQ.sin(Tan−11712+Tan−1295)= (A) 1 (B) 21 (C) 23 (D) 21
›Reveal solutionSolution
This tests the sine-addition formula built from two inverse-tangent right triangles; the arithmetic collapses very neatly since 866=2×433.
Concept and Intuition
tan−11712 is the angle of a right triangle with opposite 12, adjacent 17, hypotenuse 122+172=433. Similarly tan−1295 gives a triangle with hypotenuse 52+292=866. Once we have sin and cos of both angles, the sum formula does the rest — no need to ever find the angles themselves.
Step-by-Step Solution
- Let A=tan−11712: sinA=43312, cosA=43317 (since 122+172=144+289=433).
- Let B=tan−1295: sinB=8665, cosB=86629 (since 52+292=25+841=866).
- sin(A+B)=sinAcosB+cosAsinB=43386612(29)+17(5)=433⋅866348+85=433⋅866433. …
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