Q.Find the value of tan−1(tan67π).
Concept understanding — Principal Value Domain
Principal Value Domain (Principal Branch)
Take sinx=21. It has infinitely many solutions: x=6π,65π,613π,−67π,… — every angle whose sine is 21. So if we want an inverse that returns a single angle for sin−1(0.5), we must first agree on one angle to report. A function is allowed only one output per input, and sinx over all of R is many-to-one — it fails the horizontal line test and cannot be inverted as it stands.
The idea: restrict to one clean interval
For each trigonometric ratio we restrict the angle to a single standard interval on which the function is one-to-one while still covering its entire range exactly once. On that interval the inverse becomes well-defined and single-valued. That interval — the set of angles the inverse is allowed to return — is the principal value branch (also called the principal value domain).
The interval is chosen to be strictly monotonic, to hit every output once, and to sit as close to 0 as possible. For sine that is [−2π,2π], where sin increases from −1 to 1.
The principal value branch of an inverse trig function is the interval of angles it returns — the restricted interval on which the original ratio is one-to-one and onto its range.
| Inverse function | Domain (allowed inputs x) | Principal value branch (angles returned) |
|---|---|---|
| sin−1x | [−1,1] | [−2π,2π] |
| cos−1x | [−1,1] | [0,π] |
| tan−1x | R | (−2π,2π) |
| cot−1x | R | (0,π) |
| sec−1x | (−∞,−1]∪[1,∞) | [0,π]∖{2π} |
| csc−1x | (−∞,−1]∪[1,∞) | [−2π,2π]∖{0} |
Why the intervals differ
They are not arbitrary. cosx is symmetric about 0, so [−2π,2π] would make it two-to-one; instead we use [0,π], where cos decreases from 1 to −1 one-to-one. Each function gets the interval where it is strictly monotonic and sweeps its full range exactly once.
sin−1(sinx)=x holds only when x∈[−2π,2π]. For x=65π, sin−1(sin65π)=sin−1(21)=6π, not 65π.
These principal branches are the standard convention in every textbook, exam, and calculator, so sin−1(0.5) is always 6π. Use them unless a problem explicitly says otherwise.
Principal value branches are formally defined in the NCERT Class 12 Inverse Trigonometric Functions chapter, and the full table of domains and ranges for sin⁻¹, cos⁻¹, tan⁻¹ and the rest is one of the most-memorized reference tables in CBSE board prep. If you're searching 'principal value branch of inverse trigonometric functions table' or 'inverse trig functions important questions class 12', this restricted-interval convention is exactly the concept those searches are pointing to.
Concept: Inverse Trigonometric Graphs – The inverse tangent function tan−1 returns the principal value in (−π/2,π/2). So we must adjust the given angle to lie within this range.
- Compute the angle: 67π=π+6π, which lies in the third quadrant.
- The tangent function has period π, so tan(67π)=tan(6π)=31.
- Now tan−1(31)=6π, since 6π is the unique angle in (−π/2,π/2) with that tangent.
6π
The key is that tan−1(tanx) equals x only when x lies in the principal branch (−π/2,π/2). Since 67π is outside this interval, we must first adjust the angle to an equivalent angle within the principal range. The final answer is 6π.
1. The core idea: Inverse functions need the right domain
The function tan−1(tanx) is not simply x for every x. Why? Because tanx is periodic with period π, so many different x values give the same tangent. The inverse tangent, tan−1, is defined to return a unique angle — the one lying in the principal branch (−π/2,π/2).
So when you see tan−1(tanx), the answer is the unique angle in (−π/2,π/2) that has the same tangent as x.
2. Check where 67π lies
67π is 210∘. That's in the third quadrant, well outside (−π/2,π/2) (which is −90∘ to 90∘). So we cannot just cancel.
3. Find an equivalent angle in the principal branch
Since tan has period π, we can subtract π from 67π:
67π−π=67π−66π=6π
Now 6π is 30∘, which lies nicely inside (−π/2,π/2). And crucially:
tan(67π)=tan(6π)
because adding or subtracting π doesn't change the tangent value.
A common mistake is to subtract 2π instead of π. But tan repeats every π, not every 2π. Subtracting 2π would give 67π−2π=−65π, which is also outside the principal branch — you'd then need another adjustment. Stick with π for tangent.
4. Apply the inverse
Now we have:
tan−1(tan67π)=tan−1(tan6π)
Since 6π is in (−π/2,π/2), the function tan−1(tanx) simply returns x itself. So:
tan−1(tan6π)=6π
For any angle x, to evaluate tan−1(tanx):
- Find the integer k such that x−kπ lies in (−π/2,π/2).
- The answer is x−kπ. Here k=1 works: 67π−1⋅π=6π.
6π
Method: Evaluating tan−1(tanθ) using the period π
Use this to bring tan−1(tanθ) into the principal range when θ is outside it.
Steps
Step 1: State the principal range.
tan−1 returns a value in (−2π,2π). If θ is already inside, stop — the answer is θ.
Step 2: Shift by multiples of π, not 2π.
Tangent repeats every π, so choose the integer k with θ−kπ∈(−2π,2π):
tan−1(tanθ)=θ−kπ.
Step 3: Sanity-check the sign by quadrant.
Confirm the sign of the answer matches the sign of tanθ (positive in Q1/Q3, negative in Q2/Q4).
Common Mistakes
Mistake 1: Subtracting 2π instead of π.
Why it's wrong: tangent has period π, not 2π; subtracting 2π from 67π gives −65π, still outside the principal range. Correct approach: subtract π to get 6π, which is in (−2π,2π).
Mistake 2: Answering 67π by cancelling directly.
Why it's wrong: 67π is outside (−2π,2π), so it cannot be the principal value. Correct approach: since tan67π=tan6π=31, the answer is 6π.
- AP EAPCET 2025Set eng-2025-05-22-FN1 markMCQQ.The range of the real valued function f(x)=cos−1(−x)+sin−1(−x)+cosec−1(x) is (A) {0,2π} (B) [0,2π]∪(2π,π] (C) (0,2π) (D) {0,π}
›Reveal solutionSolution
The domains of the three inverse-trig pieces only overlap at x=±1, and evaluating there shows f takes just the two values 0 and π — a finite set, not an interval.
Concept and Intuition
Before simplifying an inverse-trig expression algebraically, always find where it's even defined. Here cos−1 and sin−1 need argument in [−1,1], while cosec−1 needs argument with ∣x∣≥1. The intersection of these domains is just the two points x=±1, so despite looking like a "function with a range interval", f is really only defined at two points.
Step-by-Step Solution
- Domain of cos−1(−x): need −x∈[−1,1]⇒x∈[−1,1].
- Domain of sin−1(−x): same, x∈[−1,1].
- Domain of cosec−1(x): need ∣x∣≥1.
- Intersection of x∈[−1,1] and ∣x∣≥1 is just x=1 or x=−1.
- Use the identity cos−1(y)+sin−1(y)=2π for any y∈[−1,1], with y=−x: cos−1(−x)+sin−1(−x)=2π regardless of x.
- So f(x)=2π+cosec−1(x).
- At x=1: cosec−1(1)=2π, so f(1)=2π+2π=π.
- At x=−1: cosec−1(−1)=−2π, so f(−1)=2π−2π=0.
- So the range (the set of all output values) is {0,π}.
Common Mistakes
- Assuming the range must be an interval because it "looks like" a continuous function — but the actual domain here is just two points, so the range is a two-element set.
- Using the wrong principal-value convention for cosec−1(−1) (should be −π/2, not 3π/2).
✓Final answerThe correct option is (D) — {0,π}.
ANSWER: D
- AP EAPCET 2025Set eng-2025-05-27-FN1 markMCQQ.Let z satisfy ∣z∣=1, z=1−zˉ and Im(z)>0. Statement-I : z is a real number Statement-II : Principal argument of z is 3π. Then (A) Statement-I is true, Statement-II is true and Statement-II is a correct explanation of statement-I (B) Statement-I is true, Statement-II is true, but Statement-II is not a correct explanation of statement-I (C) Statement-I is false, Statement-II is true (D) Statement-I is true, Statement-II is false
›Reveal solutionSolution
Solving z=1−zˉ with ∣z∣=1 and Im(z)>0 pins down z=21+i23, which is not real (Statement-I false) but does have principal argument π/3 (Statement-II true).
Concept and Intuition
Writing z=x+iy turns the condition z=1−zˉ into a simple real-part equation, since zˉ just flips the sign of the imaginary part. Combined with ∣z∣=1 (a circle) and the sign condition on Im(z), this pins down z to a single specific point on the unit circle, whose argument we can then read off directly.
Step-by-Step Solution
- Let z=x+iy, so zˉ=x−iy.
- The condition z=1−zˉ becomes x+iy=1−(x−iy)=(1−x)+iy.
- Equating real parts: x=1−x⇒2x=1⇒x=21. (The imaginary parts are automatically equal, y=y, giving no new information.)
- Use ∣z∣=1: x2+y2=1⇒(21)2+y2=1⇒y2=43⇒y=±23.
- Given Im(z)>0, we take y=23.
- So z=21+i23.
- Statement-I claims z is real. But z has a nonzero imaginary part 23=0, so z is not real. Statement-I is false.
- Statement-II claims the principal argument of z is 3π. Since z=cos3π+isin3π (as cos60°=21, sin60°=23), the principal argument (which lies in (−π,π] and here z is in the first quadrant) is indeed 3π. Statement-II is true.
- So Statement-I is false, Statement-II is true.
Common Mistakes
- Assuming z=1−zˉ forces z to be purely imaginary or real without actually solving with the modulus condition — the modulus condition is essential to pin down a unique point.
- Sign error picking y=−23 despite the given Im(z)>0 condition.
✓Final answerThe correct option is (C) — Statement-I is false, Statement-II is true.
ANSWER: C
- AP EAPCET 2024Set eng-2024-05-21-AN1 markMCQQ.The range of the real valued function f(x)=sin−1(2x1+x2)+cos−1(1+x22x) is (A) {π/2} (B) R (C) Q (D) {−π/2,π/2}
›Reveal solutionSolution
The domain of this function collapses to just x=±1 (from the AM–GM bound), and at both points the function equals π/2, so the range is the single-point set {π/2}.
Concept and Intuition
sin−1(y) is only defined for y∈[−1,1]. Here y=2x1+x2, and by AM–GM, for x>0: x+x1≥2⇒2x1+x2≥1 (equality iff x=1); for x<0, by symmetry 2x1+x2≤−1 (equality iff x=−1). So the expression can never lie strictly between −1 and 1 — it only ever touches ±1 exactly, at x=±1. This makes the domain of f just the two points {−1,1}, not an interval.
Step-by-Step Solution
- For sin−1(2x1+x2) to be defined, need −1≤2x1+x2≤1.
- By AM–GM (or completing the square: 1+x2−2x=(x−1)2≥0 and 1+x2+2x=(x+1)2≥0), we get 2x1+x2≥1 for x>0 and 2x1+x2≤−1 for x<0, with equality only at x=1 and x=−1 respectively.
- So the domain of the whole function is just {1,−1}.
- At x=1: 2x1+x2=1 and 1+x22x=1. So f(1)=sin−1(1)+cos−1(1)=2π+0=2π.
- At x=−1: 2x1+x2=−1 and 1+x22x=−1. So f(−1)=sin−1(−1)+cos−1(−1)=−2π+π=2π.
- Both domain points give the same function value π/2, so the range (the set of output values) is {π/2} — a single point, not an interval.
Common Mistakes
- Assuming the domain is all real x and trying to simplify using the identity sin−1(1+x22x)=2tan−1x (which is for a different expression, 1+x22x, not its reciprocal-like form 2x1+x2) — that identity doesn't apply here since 2x1+x2 is never in (−1,1).
✓Final answerThe correct option is (A) — {π/2}.
ANSWER: A
- AP EAPCET 2022Set eng-2022-07-07-FN1 markMCQQ.Let z and w be two complex numbers such that zˉ+iwˉ=0 and Arg(zw)=π. Then Argz= (A) 3π/4 (B) π/2 (C) 5π/4 (D) π/4
›Reveal solutionSolution
Conjugating the given relation isolates w in terms of z; substituting into Arg(zw)=π pins Arg(z)=3π/4.
Concept and Intuition
zˉ+iwˉ=0 links the conjugates of z and w. Taking the conjugate of the whole equation (using zˉ=z and i=−i) converts it into a direct relation between z and w themselves, which we can then use with the argument-addition rule for products.
Step-by-Step Solution
- Given zˉ+iwˉ=0. Take the conjugate of both sides: z−iw=0⇒z=iw⇒w=iz=−iz.
- Then zw=z(−iz)=−iz2.
- Arg(zw)=Arg(−i)+2Arg(z) (arguments add for products/powers). Since Arg(−i)=−π/2: Arg(zw)=2Arg(z)−π/2.
- Set this to π: 2Arg(z)=3π/2⇒Arg(z)=3π/4.
- Verify directly: with Arg(z)=3π/4, Arg(w)=Arg(z)−π/2=π/4; sum of arguments =3π/4+π/4=π, matching the given condition exactly (no wraparound needed), confirming this is the intended root among the choices.
Common Mistakes
- Forgetting to conjugate correctly (sign error on i).
- Using Arg(z2)=2Arg(z) carelessly without checking the branch against the answer choices.
✓Final answerThe correct option is (A) — 3π/4.
ANSWER: A
- AP EAPCET 2021Set eng-2021-08-23-FN1 markMCQQ.For what values of x, the following identity is valid & holds? tanh−1(x)=21loge(1−x1+x) (A) (−∞,∞) (B) (1,∞) (C) (−∞,1) (D) (−1,1)
›Reveal solutionSolution
The identity for tanh−1x holds precisely on its natural domain (−1,1).
Concept and Intuition
tanh−1x is only defined for −1<x<1 (since tanh maps all reals onto (−1,1)). The logarithmic formula requires 1−x1+x>0, which likewise restricts x to (−1,1).
Step-by-Step Solution
- For the logarithm to be defined, we need 1−x1+x>0.
- This ratio is positive exactly when 1+x and 1−x have the same sign, i.e., when −1<x<1.
- This matches the natural domain of tanh−1x itself (the range of tanh is (−1,1)).
- So the identity is valid for x∈(−1,1).
Common Mistakes
- Confusing this with the domain of tan−1x (all reals) rather than the hyperbolic version.
- Including endpoints ±1, where the logarithm blows up.
✓Final answerThe correct option is (D) — (−1,1).
ANSWER: D
🎓Unlock everything free for 14 days
- ✓Full step-by-step solutions
- ✓Concept-first explanations
- ✓Methods, shortcuts & mistakes
- ✓PYQ mapping + timed mock tests
Full access for 14 days. No credit card required.