Q.Prove that: tan−1x=21cos−1(1+x1−x), x∈[0,1].
🔒You're viewing a preview — the full solution, concept, methods & PYQ mapping are locked.
🔒 Start your 14-day free trial to unlock the full solution →Concept understanding — Inverse Tangent Identity
Inverse Tangent Identities
The inverse tangent function obeys a family of addition and doubling identities that let you combine two arctangents into one. They come straight from the tangent addition formula, but they carry conditions you must respect.
The core addition identity
Start from tan(A+B)=1−tanAtanBtanA+tanB. Put A=tan−1x and B=tan−1y, so tanA=x and tanB=y. Then
tan−1x+tan−1y=tan−1(1−xyx+y),xy<1.
The restriction xy<1 keeps the combined angle inside the principal range (−π/2,π/2).
If xy>1 the raw formula lands in the wrong branch, so you must correct it:
tan−1x+tan−1y=π+tan−1(1−xyx+y) (x,y>0),
and −π+tan−1(⋅) when x,y<0. Ignoring this is the classic exam slip.
Subtraction
Replacing y with −y gives
tan−1x−tan−1y=tan−1(1+xyx−y),xy>−1.
The doubling identity
Set y=x in the addition formula:
2tan−1x=tan−1(1−x22x),−1<x<1.
The same angle can also be rewritten through sine and cosine, which is handy in integration and in proofs -- but each alternate form only matches 2tan−1x on part of its domain, so the two forms carry different conditions:
2tan−1x=sin−1(1+x22x),−1≤x≤1,
2tan−1x=cos−1(1+x21−x2),x≥0.
The cos−1 form needs x≥0 -- it fails for negative x. Check x=−1: 2tan−1(−1)=2(−4π)=−2π, but cos−1(1+11−1)=cos−1(0)=2π, the wrong sign entirely. The sin−1 form has no such restriction because sin−1 (unlike cos−1) can return a negative angle.
The complementary identity
For every real x,
tan−1x+cot−1x=2π.
This holds without restriction because tan−1 and cot−1 of the same value are complementary angles. …
Concept: Inverse Tangent Identity — converting tan−1x into an inverse cosine form using a right-triangle substitution.
Let θ=tan−1x. Then tanθ=x, so we can draw a right triangle with opposite side x and adjacent side 1. The hypotenuse is 1+x.
From this triangle:
cosθ=1+x1,sinθ=1+xx.
We need cos(2θ). Using the double-angle formula:
cos(2θ)=2cos2θ−1=2(1+x1)−1=1+x2−1=1+x1−x. …
The identity tan−1x=21cos−1(1+x1−x) for x∈[0,1] is proved by letting θ=tan−1x, expressing cos2θ in terms of tanθ, and then simplifying to match the right-hand side.
Why This Approach Works
The core idea is to use the inverse tangent identity — a relationship between tanθ and cos2θ. When you have tan−1x, you can set θ=tan−1x, so tanθ=x. Then, using the double-angle formula for cosine in terms of tangent, you can express cos2θ purely in terms of x. This directly gives 2θ=cos−1(something), which is exactly the form we need.
The trick is that the domain x∈[0,1] ensures θ∈[0,π/4], so 2θ∈[0,π/2], where cos−1 gives a principal value that matches.
Step-by-Step Proof
1. Set up the substitution.
Let θ=tan−1x. Then by definition, tanθ=x, and since x∈[0,1], we have x∈[0,1], so θ∈[0,π/4].
2. Recall the double-angle formula for cosine in terms of tangent.
A standard identity is:
cos2θ=1+tan2θ1−tan2θ
This comes from cos2θ=cos2θ−sin2θ, dividing numerator and denominator by cos2θ.
cos2θ=1+tan2θ1−tan2θ
3. Substitute tanθ=x.
cos2θ=1+(x)21−(x)2=1+x1−x
4. Relate 2θ to the inverse cosine.
Since θ∈[0,π/4], we have 2θ∈[0,π/2]. On this interval, the cosine function is one-to-one and its inverse gives the principal value. Therefore: …
Method: Proving a tan−1-to-cos−1 identity via substitution
Use this to prove relations like tan−1x=21cos−1(1+x1−x).
Steps
Step 1: Substitute the inverse term as an angle.
Let θ=tan−1x, so tanθ=x. The goal becomes showing 2θ=cos−1(1+x1−x).
Step 2: Express cos2θ through the tangent.
cos2θ=1+tan2θ1−tan2θ=1+x1−x. …
Common Mistakes
Mistake 1: Using the wrong double-angle form for cosine.
Why it's wrong: the identity needed here is cos2θ=1+tan2θ1−tan2θ; using cos2θ=2cos2θ−1 without expressing cosθ in terms of x leaves the algebra stuck. Correct approach: with tanθ=x, the tangent form gives 1+x1−x immediately.
Mistake 2: Ignoring the domain when applying cos−1. …
Showing the 12 most recent of 34 on this concept.
- AP EAPCET 2021Set eng-2021-08-19-FN1 markMCQQ.If y=tan−1(1+x2−1−x21+x2+1−x2), where x2≤1. Then find dxdy (A) 4π+21cos−1(x2) (B) 4π−21cos−1(x2) (C) 1−x4−x (D) 1−x4−2x
›Reveal solutionSolution
Substituting x2=cosφ collapses the expression to y=π/4+21cos−1(x2), whose derivative is 1−x4−x.
Concept and Intuition
Nested-radical inverse-trig expressions like this are almost always designed to simplify via a trig substitution that turns 1±x2 into 2cos or 2sin of a half-angle, converting the whole ratio into a single tangent — much easier to differentiate than the raw radical expression.
Step-by-Step Solution
- Let x2=cosφ (valid since x2≤1). Then 1+x2=2cos2(φ/2) and 1−x2=2sin2(φ/2).
- So 1+x2=2cos(φ/2) and 1−x2=2sin(φ/2).
- The ratio becomes cos(φ/2)−sin(φ/2)cos(φ/2)+sin(φ/2)=1−tan(φ/2)1+tan(φ/2)=tan(4π+2φ).
- So y=tan−1[tan(4π+2φ)]=4π+2φ=4π+21cos−1(x2). …
- AP EAPCET 2021Set eng-2021-08-19-AN1 markMCQQ.dxd(Tan−1(1+sinxcosx))= (A) 21 (B) 2−1 (C) 1 (D) −1
›Reveal solutionSolution
Simplify the argument to a single tangent of a half-angle expression, then differentiate. Answer: −21.
Concept and Intuition
Expressions like 1+sinxcosx are classic half-angle simplifications that collapse to tan(4π−2x), letting the inverse tangent cancel with the tangent directly.
Step-by-Step Solution
- Multiply numerator and denominator by (1−sinx): 1+sinxcosx=1−sin2xcosx(1−sinx)=cos2xcosx(1−sinx)=cosx1−sinx.
- This is a known identity: cosx1−sinx=tan(4π−2x). …
- AP EAPCET 2026Set eng-2026-05-13-FN1 markMCQQ.The number of real solutions of the equation tan−1x(x+1)+sin−1x2+x+1=2π is (A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) Infinitely many
›Reveal solutionSolution
The domain restrictions of tan−1⋅ and sin−1⋅ force x(x+1)=0, giving exactly two real solutions, x=0 and x=−1.
Concept and Intuition
Before manipulating an inverse-trig equation, always pin down the domain first — here the two square roots and the sin−1 range constraint do almost all the work.
Step-by-Step Solution
- Let y=x2+x=x(x+1). For tan−1y to be real we need y≥0.
- Note x2+x+1=y+1. For sin−1y+1 to be defined we need 0≤y+1≤1, i.e. −1≤y≤0.
- Combining y≥0 and y≤0 forces y=0 exactly. …
- AP EAPCET 2021Set eng-2021-08-24-AN1 markMCQQ.If y=Tan−11+cosx1−cosx, then the values of dxdy and dx2d2y respectively are ________ (A) 1, 0 (B) 2x, 21 (C) 21, 0 (D) 2−1, 0
›Reveal solutionSolution
The half-angle identity collapses y to x/2, so dy/dx=1/2 and d2y/dx2=0.
Concept and Intuition
Expressions like 1+cosx1−cosx are classic half-angle simplifications; recognizing the identity turns an intimidating inverse-trig derivative problem into a trivial linear function.
Step-by-Step Solution
- Recall 1−cosx=2sin2(x/2) and 1+cosx=2cos2(x/2).
- So 1+cosx1−cosx=tan2(x/2), and tan2(x/2)=∣tan(x/2)∣.
- On the principal branch where tan(x/2)≥0 (i.e. x∈(−π,π)), y=Tan−1(tan(x/2))=2x.
- Differentiate: dxdy=21.
- Differentiate again: since dy/dx is constant, dx2d2y=0.
Common Mistakes …
- AP EAPCET 2025Set eng-2025-05-22-AN1 markMCQQ.If 21sin−1(5+4cos2θ3sin2θ)=tan−1x then x= (A) tan3θ (B) 31tanθ (C) tan3θ (D) 31tan3θ
›Reveal solutionSolution
Rewrite the inverse-sine argument as sin(2ϕ) for a suitable tanϕ built from tanθ, so the half of the inverse sine collapses to tan−1 of that quantity directly. Answer: x=31tanθ.
Concept and Intuition
Expressions of the form A+Bcos2θksin2θ can often be massaged, after dividing through by (1+tan2θ) i.e. converting to t=tanθ, into the recognizable double-angle sine pattern 1+u22u=sin(2tan−1u) for some rescaled variable u. Spotting this pattern converts an awkward inverse-trig expression into a clean angle.
Step-by-Step Solution
- Let t=tanθ. Recall sin2θ=1+t22t, cos2θ=1+t21−t2.
- Numerator: 3sin2θ=1+t26t.
- Denominator: 5+4cos2θ=5+1+t24(1−t2)=1+t25(1+t2)+4(1−t2)=1+t29+t2.
- So the ratio is (9+t2)/(1+t2)6t/(1+t2)=9+t26t.
- Let u=t/3. Then 1+u22u=1+t2/92t/3=(9+t2)/92t/3=9+t26t — exactly matches!
- So 9+t26t=sin(2ϕ) where tanϕ=u=t/3, i.e. ϕ=tan−1(3tanθ). …
- AP EAPCET 2025Set eng-2025-05-23-AN1 markMCQQ.The number of solutions of Tan−11+21Cos−1x2−Tan−1(1+x2−1−x21+x2+1−x2)=0 is (A) 3 (B) 0 (C) 1 (D) infinitely many
›Reveal solutionSolution
This tests simplifying an inverse-trig expression via a trigonometric substitution, revealing that the equation is actually an identity over its whole domain. Answer: infinitely many solutions.
Concept and Intuition
The fraction 1+x2−1−x21+x2+1−x2 looks intimidating, but substituting x2=cosα converts 1±x2 into 2cos2(α/2) and 2sin2(α/2), turning the whole fraction into a clean tan(4π+2α). This is the standard trick for expressions of the form 1+x2±1−x2.
Step-by-Step Solution
- Domain: Cos−1(x2) needs x2∈[−1,1], and since x2≥0 always, effectively x2∈[0,1], i.e. x∈[−1,1]. Also need 1−x2 real, consistent.
- Let α=Cos−1(x2)∈[0,π/2] (since x2∈[0,1], α can only range over [0,π/2], not the full [0,π]).
- Then x2=cosα, so 1+x2=1+cosα=2cos2(α/2) and 1−x2=1−cosα=2sin2(α/2). Since α/2∈[0,π/4], both cos(α/2),sin(α/2)≥0, so 1+x2=2cos(α/2), 1−x2=2sin(α/2).
- The fraction becomes cos(α/2)−sin(α/2)cos(α/2)+sin(α/2)=1−tan(α/2)1+tan(α/2)=tan(4π+2α).
- Since α/2∈[0,π/4], we have 4π+2α∈[4π,2π), safely inside the principal range of Tan−1, so Tan−1[tan(4π+2α)]=4π+2α exactly (excluding x=0 where α=π/2 makes the denominator zero). …
- AP EAPCET 2025Set eng-2025-05-24-FN1 markMCQQ.For 0<x<1, ∫[Tan−1(1−x+x2)+Tan−1(1−x)]dx= (A) xCot−1x+log1+x2+c (B) xTan−1x−log(1+x2)+c (C) xCot−1x+43log(1+x2)+c (D) xTan−1x−43log1+x2+c
›Reveal solutionSolution
The two arctangent terms combine, via the tan-addition identity, into a single Cot−1x; integrating that by parts gives option (A).
Concept and Intuition
The stem looks intimidating because it has two separate inverse-tangent terms with messy arguments. The key insight is that Tan−1p+Tan−1q always collapses via
Tan−1p+Tan−1q=Tan−1(1−pqp+q) (mod π correction),
so it's worth testing whether p=1−x+x2 and q=1−x are designed to make 1−pqp+q simplify beautifully — which they are.
Step-by-Step Solution
- Compute p+q=(1−x+x2)+(1−x)=2−2x+x2.
- Compute pq=(1−x+x2)(1−x). Expanding: (1−x+x2)(1−x)=1−2x+2x2−x3.
- So 1−pq=1−(1−2x+2x2−x3)=2x−2x2+x3=x(2−2x+x2).
- Hence 1−pqp+q=x(2−2x+x2)2−2x+x2=x1.
- Check the correction term: for 0<x<1, 2−2x+x2=(x−1)2+1>0 and x>0, so 1−pq>0⇒pq<1, meaning the plain addition formula applies with no ±π shift.
- So the integrand is exactly Tan−1(1/x)=Cot−1x (valid since x>0).
- Now integrate by parts: ∫Cot−1xdx=xCot−1x−∫x⋅(1+x2−1)dx=xCot−1x+∫1+x2xdx.
- ∫1+x2xdx=21log(1+x2)=log1+x2.
- Total: xCot−1x+log1+x2+c. …
- AP EAPCET 2024Set eng-2024-05-22-FN1 markMCQQ.The value of x such that sin(2tan−143)=cos(2tan−1x) is (A) 7 (B) 73 (C) 71 (D) 74
›Reveal solutionSolution
This tests the tangent double-angle formulas for both sine and cosine. Answer: x=1/7.
Concept and Intuition
Both sides are "double angle of an inverse tangent," so express each side purely in terms of the tangent using sin2θ=1+t22t and cos2ϕ=1+x21−x2 (both derivable from a right triangle with opposite/adjacent =t or x).
Step-by-Step Solution
- Let θ=tan−1(3/4), so tanθ=3/4.
- sin2θ=1+tan2θ2tanθ=1+9/162(3/4)=25/163/2=23⋅2516=2524.
- Let ϕ=tan−1x, so cos2ϕ=1+x21−x2.
- Equation: 1+x21−x2=2524. …
- AP EAPCET 2026Set eng-2026-05-12-FN1 markMCQQ.For b>a, the solution of the equation cot(cos−1x)=sec{tan−1b2−a2a} is (A) 2b2−a2b (B) 2b2−a2a (C) ab2−a2 (D) 2bb2−a2
›Reveal solutionSolution
This tests converting inverse trig expressions into right-triangle ratios and solving the resulting algebraic equation. The answer is x=2b2−a2b.
Concept and Intuition
For any inverse trig expression like tan−1(p/q), imagine a right triangle with opposite p and adjacent q; the hypotenuse follows from the Pythagorean theorem, and any other trig ratio of that same angle can then be read straight off the triangle. Applying this to both sides converts the equation into pure algebra in x.
Step-by-Step Solution
- Let θ=tan−1b2−a2a. In the corresponding right triangle: opposite =a, adjacent =b2−a2, so hypotenuse =a2+(b2−a2)=b.
- Hence secθ=adjhyp=b2−a2b.
- Let φ=cos−1x, so cosφ=x: adjacent =x, hypotenuse =1, opposite =1−x2.
- Hence cotφ=sinφcosφ=1−x2x.
- Equating: 1−x2x=b2−a2b. Squaring: 1−x2x2=b2−a2b2. …
- AP EAPCET 2024Set eng-2024-05-21-AN1 markMCQQ.The real values of x that satisfy the equation tan−1x+tan−12x=4π is (A) 4−3±17 (B) −1±3 (C) 3−1 (D) 417−3
›Reveal solutionSolution
The key idea is to apply the inverse tangent addition formula tan−1a+tan−1b=tan−11−aba+b (with a domain check) and then solve the resulting quadratic, finally verifying which solutions satisfy the original equation. The only valid solution is 417−3, which corresponds to option (D).
We start with the equation
tan−1x+tan−12x=4π.
1. Recall the inverse tangent addition formula
For real numbers a and b with ab=1, we have
tan−1a+tan−1b=tan−11−aba+b+kπ,
where k is an integer chosen so that the sum lies in (−π/2,π/2) (the principal range of arctan).
Since the right-hand side is π/4, which is within (−π/2,π/2), we can safely take k=0 provided the sum of the two angles is indeed in that interval. We’ll check this later.
2. Apply the formula
Set a=x, b=2x. Then
tan−1x+tan−12x=tan−11−x⋅2xx+2x=tan−11−2x23x.
Thus the equation becomes
tan−11−2x23x=4π.
3. Remove the arctangent
Taking tangent of both sides (valid because both sides lie in (−π/2,π/2) for the moment), we get
1−2x23x=tan4π=1.
4. Solve the resulting equation
1−2x23x=1⇒3x=1−2x2.
Rearrange:
2x2+3x−1=0.
Solve using the quadratic formula:
x=4−3±9+8=4−3±17.
So the two candidates are
x1=4−3+17,x2=4−3−17.
5. Check domain and validity
We must ensure that for each candidate, the original sum of arctangents actually equals π/4 (not π/4+π or something else).
- For x2=4−3−17: …
- AP EAPCET 2025Set eng-2025-05-21-FN1 markMCQQ.tan−115+18−215+tan−151= (A) 6π (B) 4π (C) 3π (D) 2π
›Reveal solutionSolution
This tests simplifying a nested surd inside an inverse trig function, then adding two inverse-tangent values. The answer is (A).
Concept and Intuition
A nested surd of the form a+b−2ab always simplifies to ∣a−b∣. Recognizing 8−215 as this form with a=5,b=3 turns an ugly expression into a clean one, after which the sum of the two arctangents can be identified as a standard angle.
Step-by-Step Solution
- Write 8−215=5+3−25⋅3=(5−3)2, so 8−215=5−3 (positive since 5>3).
- The first term becomes tan−115+15−3.
- Numerically: 5≈2.236, 3≈1.732, 15≈3.873. So the argument ≈4.8730.504≈0.1034, giving the first term ≈5.91°. …
- AP EAPCET 2021Set eng-2021-08-19-FN1 markMCQQ.If tan−1[1+1.21]+tan−1[1+2.31]+⋯+tan−1[1+n(n+1)1]=tan−1[x], then x= (A) n+11 (B) n+1n (C) n+21 (D) n+2n
›Reveal solutionSolution
Each term telescopes as tan−1(k+1)−tan−1(k); summing collapses the whole series to tan−1(n+2n), so x=n+2n.
Concept and Intuition
The key identity is tan−11+k(k+1)1=tan−1(k+1)−tan−1k, which follows from the tangent subtraction formula tan−1p−tan−1q=tan−11+pqp−q applied with p=k+1,q=k. Once each term is in this "difference" form, the whole sum telescopes, leaving only the first and last pieces.
Step-by-Step Solution
- Verify the telescoping identity: tan−1(k+1)−tan−1(k)=tan−11+(k+1)k(k+1)−k=tan−11+k(k+1)1. ✓ matches each term's form (with k=1,2,…,n).
- So the sum ∑k=1ntan−11+k(k+1)1=∑k=1n[tan−1(k+1)−tan−1(k)].
- This telescopes: all intermediate terms cancel, leaving tan−1(n+1)−tan−1(1).
- Apply the subtraction formula again: tan−1(n+1)−tan−1(1)=tan−11+(n+1)(1)(n+1)−1=tan−1n+2n. …
🎓Unlock everything free for 14 days
- ✓Full step-by-step solutions
- ✓Concept-first explanations
- ✓Methods, shortcuts & mistakes
- ✓PYQ mapping + timed mock tests
Full access for 14 days. No credit card required.