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Question 18 of 104

Q.According to the theory of Keynesian Economics, the value of Average Propensity to Consume can never be ________. (Choose the correct alternative) (A) zero (B) unity

(1) (C) more than one (D) less than one
Bihar BsebCBSE Class XII Board 2020Subjective· 1mImportance★★★★★
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The key idea is that Average Propensity to Consume (APC) is the ratio of total consumption to total income. Since consumption is always positive even at zero income (autonomous consumption), APC can never be zero — it can be greater than one, equal to one, or less than one, but never zero. The correct answer is (A) zero.

The Concept: What is APC and Why It Matters

Average Propensity to Consume (APC) is a fundamental concept in Keynesian economics. It tells us, on average, what fraction of total income is spent on consumption. Mathematically:

APC=CYAPC = \frac{C}{Y}

where CC is total consumption expenditure and YY is total income (or output).

The key insight from Keynes is that consumption has two parts: a fixed part that doesn't depend on income (called autonomous consumption, aa), and a part that rises with income (called induced consumption, bYbY). So:

C=a+bYC = a + bY

Here, a>0a > 0 (people consume even when income is zero — they borrow or use savings), and bb is the marginal propensity to consume, between 0 and 1.

Now, let's see what happens to APC as income changes.

Step-by-Step Reasoning

  1. APC when income is very low or zero

    If Y=0Y = 0, then C=a>0C = a > 0. So APC=a0APC = \frac{a}{0} is undefined (division by zero). But as YY approaches zero from above, APCAPC becomes very large — it shoots above 1. In fact, for any positive income less than aa, consumption exceeds income, so APC>1APC > 1.

    Example: If a=100a = 100 and Y=50Y = 50, then C=100+b(50)>100C = 100 + b(50) > 100, so APC>2APC > 2. Clearly, APC can be more than one.

  2. APC when income equals autonomous consumption

    If Y=aY = a, then C=a+b(a)=a(1+b)C = a + b(a) = a(1+b). Since b>0b > 0, C>aC > a, so APC>1APC > 1 still. For APC to be exactly 1, we need C=YC = Y, i.e., a+bY=Ya + bY = Y, which gives Y=a1−bY = \frac{a}{1-b}. This is possible at some positive income level. So APC can be unity (1).

  3. APC when income is very high

    As YY grows large, the term aa becomes negligible compared to bYbY. Then C≈bYC \approx bY, so APC≈bAPC \approx b, which is less than 1 (since b<1b < 1). So APC can be less than one as well.

  4. Can APC ever be zero? …

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