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Q.If 2cos⁡−1x=y2\cos^{-1}x = y, then (A) 0≤y≤π0 \le y \le \pi (B) −π≤y≤π-\pi \le y \le \pi (C) 0≤y≤2π0 \le y \le 2\pi (D) −π≤y≤0-\pi \le y \le 0

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The range of cos⁡−1x\cos^{-1}x is [0,π][0,\pi], so multiplying by 2 gives y=2cos⁡−1xy = 2\cos^{-1}x a range of [0,2π][0,2\pi]. The correct option is (C).

Concept and Intuition

The key to this problem lies entirely in understanding the range of the inverse cosine function. cos⁡−1x\cos^{-1}x (also written as arccos⁡x\arccos x) is defined as the angle whose cosine is xx, and by convention, that angle is always taken from the interval [0,π][0, \pi]. This is not arbitrary — it's the standard principal value branch that makes the function one-to-one and therefore invertible.

Once you know that cos⁡−1x\cos^{-1}x lives between 00 and π\pi (inclusive), finding the range of y=2cos⁡−1xy = 2\cos^{-1}x is simply a matter of scaling that interval by a factor of 2. No tricky domain restrictions, no sign flips — just multiplication.

Watch out

A common mistake is to confuse the range of cos⁡−1x\cos^{-1}x with that of sin⁡−1x\sin^{-1}x (which is [−π/2,π/2][-\pi/2, \pi/2]). Always recall: cos⁡−1x∈[0,π]\cos^{-1}x \in [0,\pi], not [−π/2,π/2][-\pi/2,\pi/2].

Step-by-step solution

  1. Recall the range of cos⁡−1x\cos^{-1}x The inverse cosine function cos⁡−1:[−1,1]→[0,π]\cos^{-1}: [-1,1] \to [0,\pi] gives an output angle in radians. This means:

0≤cos⁡−1x≤πfor all x∈[−1,1].0 \le \cos^{-1}x \le \pi \quad \text{for all } x \in [-1,1].

  1. Multiply the inequality by 2 Since 2 is positive, multiplying through preserves the direction of the inequalities:

2⋅0≤2cos⁡−1x≤2⋅π2 \cdot 0 \le 2\cos^{-1}x \le 2 \cdot \pi

which simplifies to:

0≤y≤2π.0 \le y \le 2\pi.

  1. Check if every value in [0,2π][0,2\pi] is actually attained …

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