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Exercises · Q11

Q.A die is thrown 44 times. Getting a "six" is considered a success. Find the probability of getting

(i) exactly 22 sixes,
(ii) at most 11 six.
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✓ Free question

Let XX = number of sixes in 44 throws. Here p=16p=\tfrac16, q=56q=\tfrac56, n=4n=4, so X∼B ⁣(4,16)X\sim B\!\left(4,\tfrac16\right).

(i) Exactly 22 sixes.

P(X=2)=(42)(16)2(56)2=6⋅136⋅2536=6×251296=1501296=25216≈0.1157.P(X=2)=\binom{4}{2}\left(\frac16\right)^{2}\left(\frac56\right)^{2}=6\cdot\frac{1}{36}\cdot\frac{25}{36}=\frac{6\times25}{1296}=\frac{150}{1296}=\frac{25}{216}\approx 0.1157.

(ii) At most 11 six means X=0X=0 or X=1X=1:

P(X=0)=(56)4=6251296,P(X=1)=(41)(16)(56)3=4⋅16⋅125216=5001296.P(X=0)=\left(\frac56\right)^{4}=\frac{625}{1296}, \qquad P(X=1)=\binom{4}{1}\left(\frac16\right)\left(\frac56\right)^{3}=4\cdot\frac{1}{6}\cdot\frac{125}{216}=\frac{500}{1296}.

P(X≤1)=6251296+5001296=11251296=125144≈0.868.P(X\le 1)=\frac{625}{1296}+\frac{500}{1296}=\frac{1125}{1296}=\frac{125}{144}\approx 0.868.

Independent check for (i). (42)=6\binom{4}{2}=6, (16)2=136(\tfrac16)^2=\tfrac1{36}, (56)2=2536(\tfrac56)^2=\tfrac{25}{36}; product 6⋅2536⋅36=1501296\tfrac{6\cdot25}{36\cdot36}=\tfrac{150}{1296}, and dividing numerator and denominator by 66 gives 25216\tfrac{25}{216} — confirmed.

✓Final answer

(i) P(X=2)=25216≈0.116P(X=2)=\dfrac{25}{216}\approx 0.116; (ii) P(X≤1)=125144≈0.868P(X\le 1)=\dfrac{125}{144}\approx 0.868.

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