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Exercises · Q4

Q.What is 'effective demand'? How will you derive the autonomous expenditure multiplier when price of final goods and the rate of interest are given?

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Effective demand is the level of aggregate demand at which firms have no incentive to change output because planned spending equals actual output; the autonomous expenditure multiplier (with fixed prices and interest) is derived by equating aggregate demand to income and solving for the change in equilibrium income per unit change in autonomous spending, yielding 11−c\frac{1}{1 - c} where cc is the marginal propensity to consume.


Effective Demand: The Equilibrium Concept

Effective demand is not simply what people want to buy—it is the particular level of aggregate demand that actually gets realized in the economy when production decisions validate it. Think of it as the point where plans meet reality.

Firms produce output based on what they expect people will buy. If aggregate demand (consumption plus investment plus government spending) turns out to equal the value of output produced, firms have guessed right: inventories neither pile up nor run short, and there is no pressure to expand or contract production. This equilibrium level of output, where planned aggregate demand equals actual output, is what Keynes called effective demand. It is "effective" because it translates into actual employment and production, not merely wishful thinking.

The crucial insight: in the short run, with spare capacity and sticky prices, output adjusts to meet demand rather than the other way around. Effective demand therefore determines the level of national income and employment.


Deriving the Autonomous Expenditure Multiplier

When the price level and the interest rate are held constant (the short-run Keynesian assumption), we can derive the multiplier algebraically from the equilibrium condition.

Step 1: Write down aggregate demand

Aggregate demand ADAD has two components: consumption CC, which depends on income, and autonomous expenditure Aˉ\bar{A}, which does not. Autonomous expenditure bundles together investment, government spending, and the part of consumption that does not vary with income (the intercept).

The consumption function is

C=Cˉ+cYC = \bar{C} + c Y

where Cˉ\bar{C} is autonomous consumption, cc is the marginal propensity to consume (0<c<10 < c < 1), and YY is national income. Aggregate demand is then

AD=C+Iˉ+Gˉ=(Cˉ+Iˉ+Gˉ)+cY=Aˉ+cYAD = C + \bar{I} + \bar{G} = (\bar{C} + \bar{I} + \bar{G}) + c Y = \bar{A} + c Y

where Aˉ=Cˉ+Iˉ+Gˉ\bar{A} = \bar{C} + \bar{I} + \bar{G} is total autonomous expenditure.

Step 2: Impose the equilibrium condition

At equilibrium (effective demand), actual output equals planned spending:

Y=AD=Aˉ+cYY = AD = \bar{A} + c Y

Step 3: Solve for equilibrium income

Rearrange:

Y−cY=Aˉ  ⟹  Y(1−c)=Aˉ  ⟹  Y=Aˉ1−cY - c Y = \bar{A} \implies Y(1 - c) = \bar{A} \implies Y = \frac{\bar{A}}{1 - c}

This tells us equilibrium income as a function of autonomous spending.

Step 4: Find the multiplier

The autonomous expenditure multiplier kk measures how much equilibrium income changes when autonomous expenditure changes by one unit. Differentiate (or take a small change):

ΔY=ΔAˉ1−c\Delta Y = \frac{\Delta \bar{A}}{1 - c}

so

k=ΔYΔAˉ=11−ck = \frac{\Delta Y}{\Delta \bar{A}} = \frac{1}{1 - c}

Equivalently, since cc is the marginal propensity to consume and s=1−cs = 1 - c is the marginal propensity to save,

k=1sk = \frac{1}{s}

The Economic Intuition …

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