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Exercise 14.2 · Q7

Q.A fair coin is tossed four times, and a person win Re 1 for each head and lose Rs 1.50 for each tail that turns up. From the sample space calculate how many different amounts of money you can have after four tosses and the probability of having each of these amounts.

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The key idea is to map the number of heads in 4 tosses to the net winnings, using the formula Net = (1)(H) - (1.50)(4-H). The possible net amounts are -6, -3.5, -1, 1.5, 4 (in rupees), and their probabilities follow the binomial distribution with n=4n=4, p=0.5p=0.5.

Why this approach works

When you toss a fair coin four times, each sequence of heads (H) and tails (T) is equally likely — there are 24=162^4 = 16 equally probable outcomes. The net winnings depend only on the number of heads, not on the order of heads and tails. That’s because each head adds Re 1 and each tail subtracts Rs 1.50, and the total is just:

Net amount=(1)(number of heads)−(1.50)(number of tails)\text{Net amount} = (1)(\text{number of heads}) - (1.50)(\text{number of tails})

Since the number of tails = 4−number of heads4 - \text{number of heads}, we can rewrite everything in terms of hh, the number of heads.

Net winnings=h−1.50(4−h)=2.5h−6\text{Net winnings} = h - 1.50(4 - h) = 2.5h - 6

This is a linear function of hh, so each distinct hh gives a distinct net amount. The possible values of hh are 0, 1, 2, 3, 4 — that’s 5 different amounts.

Now, the probability of getting exactly hh heads in 4 tosses of a fair coin is given by the binomial distribution:

P(h heads)=(4h)(12)4=(4h)16P(h \text{ heads}) = \binom{4}{h} \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^4 = \frac{\binom{4}{h}}{16}

We’ll compute the net amount for each hh, then list the probability.

Step-by-step solution

  1. List the possible numbers of heads

    hh can be 0, 1, 2, 3, or 4. Each corresponds to a unique net amount because 2.5h−62.5h - 6 is strictly increasing in hh.

  2. Compute the net amount for each hh

    • h=0h = 0: 2.5(0)−6=−62.5(0) - 6 = -6 (lose Rs 6)
    • h=1h = 1: 2.5(1)−6=−3.52.5(1) - 6 = -3.5 (lose Rs 3.50)
    • h=2h = 2: 2.5(2)−6=−12.5(2) - 6 = -1 (lose Re 1)
    • h=3h = 3: 2.5(3)−6=1.52.5(3) - 6 = 1.5 (win Rs 1.50)
    • h=4h = 4: 2.5(4)−6=42.5(4) - 6 = 4 (win Rs 4)

    So the five distinct amounts are: -6, -3.5, -1, 1.5, 4 (all in rupees).

  3. Find the probability of each hh

    Use (4h)\binom{4}{h}:

    • h=0h=0: (40)=1\binom{4}{0}=1, probability =116= \frac{1}{16}
    • h=1h=1: (41)=4\binom{4}{1}=4, probability =416=14= \frac{4}{16} = \frac{1}{4}
    • h=2h=2: (42)=6\binom{4}{2}=6, probability =616=38= \frac{6}{16} = \frac{3}{8}
    • h=3h=3: (43)=4\binom{4}{3}=4, probability =416=14= \frac{4}{16} = \frac{1}{4}
    • h=4h=4: (44)=1\binom{4}{4}=1, probability =116= \frac{1}{16}
  4. Map these probabilities to the net amounts

    Since each hh gives exactly one net amount, the probability of a net amount equals the probability of the corresponding hh.

| Net amount (Rs) | Number of heads hh | Probability | …

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