Using the property ∫0af(x)dx=∫0af(a−x)dx, the given integral simplifies to 4π.
The trick here is symmetry. When you see an integral from 0 to π/2 with a ratio of sines and cosines, the substitution x→π/2−x often turns the denominator into a mirror image of itself. This lets you add the original and transformed integrals, giving a simple result.
Let’s work through it.
- Define the integral.
Let
I=∫0π/2sin3/2x+cos3/2xsin3/2xdx.
- Apply the symmetry substitution.
Use the property ∫0af(x)dx=∫0af(a−x)dx. Here a=π/2, so replace x by π/2−x:
I=∫0π/2sin3/2(π/2−x)+cos3/2(π/2−x)sin3/2(π/2−x)dx.
Recall the co-function identities:
sin(π/2−x)=cosx and cos(π/2−x)=sinx.
So the integral becomes
I=∫0π/2cos3/2x+sin3/2xcos3/2xdx.
- Add the two forms.
Now we have two expressions for I:
I=∫0π/2sin3/2x+cos3/2xsin3/2xdx
and
I=∫0π/2sin3/2x+cos3/2xcos3/2xdx.
Add them:
2I=∫0π/2sin3/2x+cos3/2xsin3/2x+cos3/2xdx=∫0π/21dx.
The integrand simplifies to 1 (provided the denominator is never zero on [0,π/2], which it isn’t — both terms are non-negative and only vanish at the endpoints, but the sum is positive in between).
- Evaluate the simple integral.
∫0π/21dx=2π.
Hence 2I=π/2, so
I=4π.
A common mistake is to forget that the substitution x→a−x changes the limits but the property handles that automatically — you don’t need to recompute them. Also, be careful: the exponent 3/2 is fine here because the functions are well-defined and positive on (0,π/2).
This trick works for any integral of the form ∫0π/2f(sinx)+f(cosx)f(sinx)dx where f is any function for which the substitution works — the answer is always π/4, as long as the denominator never vanishes.
✓Final answer
The value of the integral is 4π.