Q.Prove that
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Start your 14-day free trial to unlock the full solution →The integral is evaluated using integration by parts, treating as . The result simplifies to .
The problem asks us to prove a definite integral involving the inverse sine function. At first glance, you might wonder: what’s the antiderivative of ? It’s not a standard derivative we memorize. So we need a technique to break it down.
The key insight is integration by parts. This method is perfect when we have a product of two functions — and here, we can think of as . The “1” is easy to integrate, and the derivative of is a rational function, which simplifies things.
Integration by parts:
Let’s work through it step by step.
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Choose and .
We set and .
Why? Because will become , a simpler expression, and will just be .
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Compute and .
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Apply integration by parts.
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Evaluate the boundary term.
At :
At :
So the boundary term is .
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Simplify the remaining integral.
We now need .
Notice the numerator is almost the derivative of (which is ). This suggests a substitution.
Let . Then , so .
When , ; when , .
The integral becomes:
Flipping the limits removes the minus sign:
- Integrate with respect to . …
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