Q.Write cot−1(x2−11), x>1 in the simplest form.
🔒You're viewing a preview — the full solution, concept, methods & PYQ mapping are locked.
🔒 Start your 14-day free trial to unlock the full solution →Concept understanding — Trigonometric Simplification
Trigonometric Simplification
You know sin2x+cos2x=1 — but the skill of turning a messy trig expression into that kind of clean form is trigonometric simplification. Because sines, cosines and their relatives are all tied together by identities from the unit circle, a tangled combination can almost always be rewritten as something shorter: a single term, a constant, or an easier combination.
Your core toolkit
Pythagorean: sin2θ+cos2θ=1,1+tan2θ=sec2θ,1+cot2θ=csc2θ
Reciprocal: cscθ=sinθ1, secθ=cosθ1, cotθ=tanθ1
Quotient: tanθ=cosθsinθ,cotθ=sinθcosθ
How the process feels
Simplify 1+cosxsinx+sinx1+cosx. Over a common denominator the numerator is sin2x+(1+cosx)2=sin2x+1+2cosx+cos2x. The Pythagorean identity turns sin2x+cos2x into 1, giving 2+2cosx=2(1+cosx), so
sinx(1+cosx)2(1+cosx)=sinx2=2cscx.
A two-term sum collapses to one term.
Strategies that usually work
- Convert everything to sines and cosines — cancellations then appear.
- Spot Pythagorean pairs and replace them with 1 (or sec2, csc2).
- Factor and cancel as you would with ordinary algebra.
- Multiply by a conjugate — e.g. multiply 1+sinx1 by 1−sinx1−sinx to unlock a Pythagorean identity. …
To simplify cot−1(x2−11) for x>1, name it as an angle and rebuild it from a right triangle.
Let θ=cot−1(x2−11), so cotθ=x2−11 with θ∈(0,2π) (the argument is positive since x>1). …
The key idea is to rewrite the inverse cotangent in terms of inverse secant using a right-triangle substitution. For x>1, the simplest form is sec−1x.
We are asked to simplify cot−1(x2−11) for x>1. The expression inside the inverse function looks like a ratio that could come from a right triangle. Let’s see why.
The domain x>1 ensures that x2−1 is real and positive, and the fraction x2−11 is positive. So the angle θ=cot−1(x2−11) lies in (0,π/2) — the principal branch of cot−1 for positive arguments.
Now, recall that cotθ=oppositeadjacent. If we set cotθ=x2−11, then we can imagine a right triangle where the side adjacent to θ is 1 and the side opposite is x2−1. The hypotenuse then becomes 12+(x2−1)2=1+x2−1=x.
So we have a triangle with:
- adjacent = 1
- opposite = x2−1
- hypotenuse = x
From this triangle, secθ=adjacenthypotenuse=1x=x. Therefore θ=sec−1x.
That’s the entire simplification. Let’s walk through it step by step.
-
Set up the angle.
Let θ=cot−1(x2−11). Then cotθ=x2−11, and since x>1, θ∈(0,π/2).
-
Interpret as a triangle ratio.
cotθ=oppositeadjacent. So take adjacent = 1, opposite = x2−1.
-
Find the hypotenuse. …
Method: Simplifying an inverse-trig expression with a right-triangle substitution
Use this whenever an inverse function contains an algebraic argument like x2−11 or 1−x2 — build a right triangle so the ratio becomes obvious and read off the simpler inverse.
Steps
Step 1: Name the angle and turn the argument into a triangle ratio.
Let θ equal the whole inverse expression, so here cotθ=x2−11. Read cotθ=oppositeadjacent, giving adjacent =1, opposite =x2−1.
Step 2: Get the third side from Pythagoras.
hypotenuse=12+(x2−1)2=x2=x(x>0). …
Common Mistakes
Mistake 1: Mixing up which side is adjacent and which is opposite.
Why it's wrong: cotθ=oppositeadjacent, so with cotθ=x2−11 the adjacent side is 1 and the opposite is x2−1; swapping them gives tan instead and a wrong final form. Correct approach: match cot to adjacent-over-opposite carefully, then the hypotenuse comes out as x.
Mistake 2: Ignoring the restriction x>1. …
Showing the 12 most recent of 34 on this concept.
- TG EAPCET 2023Set eng-2023-05-14-FN1 markMCQQ.If x=log(y+y2+1) then y= (A) tanhx (B) cothx (C) sinhx (D) coshx
›Reveal solutionSolution
The expression x=log(y+y2+1) is the definition of the inverse hyperbolic sine, so y=sinhx. The correct option is (C).
The key here is recognizing a standard identity. The expression y+y2+1 looks like something that appears when you solve for y in terms of x from the definition of hyperbolic sine. In fact, sinhx=2ex−e−x, and its inverse is exactly sinh−1y=log(y+y2+1). So the problem is simply asking: if x=sinh−1y, what is y? The answer is y=sinhx.
Let’s verify this step by step.
-
Start with the given equation
We have x=log(y+y2+1). This is an equation relating x and y. Our goal is to solve for y in terms of x.
-
Exponentiate both sides
Since the logarithm is natural log (base e), we write
ex=y+y2+1.
This removes the log and gives a simpler equation.
- Consider the conjugate expression A classic trick: if ex=y+y2+1, then its reciprocal is
e−x=y+y2+11.
Rationalize the denominator:
e−x=(y+y2+1)(y−y2+1)y−y2+1=y2−(y2+1)y−y2+1=−1y−y2+1=y2+1−y.
So we have two equations:
ex=y+y2+1,e−x=y2+1−y.
- Subtract to isolate y Subtract the second equation from the first:
-
- TG EAPCET 2026Set eng-2026-05-10-AN1 markMCQQ.If x=sin−1(cost) and y=tan−1(cost), then dxdy= (A) 1+sin2xcosx (B) 1+sin2tcost (C) 1+sin2tsint (D) 1+cos2xsinx
›Reveal solutionSolution
The key is to express both x and y in terms of t, then use the chain rule to find dxdy as a function of x, matching option (A).
We are given:
x=sin−1(cost),y=tan−1(cost).
We need dxdy.
Concept and intuition:
Both x and y are functions of t, so we can compute dtdy and dtdx separately, then use dxdy=dx/dtdy/dt. The trick is to simplify sin−1(cost) into a nicer algebraic form in terms of t, which will make differentiation cleaner. Then we express the final answer in terms of x (since the options involve x or t).
- Simplify x Recall: sin−1(cost)=2π−t for t in [0,π], but more generally we can use the identity sin−1(cost)=2π−∣t∣? Actually, a cleaner approach: Let u=cost. Then x=sin−1(u). But we can also write cost=sin(2π−t), so
x=sin−1(sin(2π−t)).
For the principal range of sin−1, we need 2π−t∈[−π/2,π/2], i.e., t∈[0,π]. Assuming this, we get
x=2π−t.
Hence, t=2π−x.
- Differentiate x and y with respect to t From x=2π−t, we have
dtdx=−1.
For y=tan−1(cost), differentiate:
dtdy=1+(cost)21⋅(−sint)=−1+cos2tsint.
- Find dxdy Using the chain rule: dxdy=dx/dtdy/dt=−1−1+cos2tsint=1+cos2tsint. …
- TG EAPCET 2025Set eng-2025-05-02-FN1 markMCQQ.tan−153+tan−1416+tan−11919= (A) tan−1109 (B) tan−11918 (C) tan−11913 (D) tan−12056
›Reveal solutionSolution
Adding the arctangents two at a time gives tan−1109.
Solution
Use tan−1p+tan−1q=tan−11−pqp+q.
First two terms:
tan−153+tan−1416=tan−11−53⋅41653+416=tan−1205−18123+30=tan−1187153=tan−1119.
Add the third term: …
- TG EAPCET 2022Set eng-2022-07-19-FN1 markMCQQ.If the minimum value of cos(sinh(logx)+cosh(logx)) is k, then cosh(k+1)= (A) 2e+e−1 (B) 2e2+e−2 (C) e (D) 1
›Reveal solutionSolution
The expression simplifies using hyperbolic identities to cos(x+1/x), whose minimum is −1, so k=−1, and cosh(k+1)=cosh0=1.
The problem looks messy at first — cos(sinh(logx)+cosh(logx)) — but the key is to notice that sinh and cosh are built to combine neatly. Their sum is simply elogx, which is x. That turns the whole thing into cos(x+1/x), and then it's just a matter of finding the minimum of a cosine function.
Let's go step by step.
-
Simplify the hyperbolic sum.
Recall the definitions:
sinht=2et−e−t, cosht=2et+e−t.
Adding them:
sinht+cosht=2et−e−t+et+e−t=22et=et.
Here t=logx, so sinh(logx)+cosh(logx)=elogx=x.
-
Rewrite the original expression. …
-
- TG EAPCET 2024Set eng-2024-05-09-FN1 markMCQQ.cos−153+sin−1135+tan−16316= (A) 2π (B) 3π (C) 4π (D) 6π
›Reveal solutionSolution
The sum of the three inverse trigonometric functions simplifies to 2π by converting each into an angle of a right triangle, adding two of them using the tangent addition formula, and recognizing the complementary angle relationship.
We are asked to evaluate
cos−153+sin−1135+tan−16316.
The key idea is to interpret each inverse trig function as an angle in a right triangle, then combine them using known identities — specifically the tangent addition formula — to see if the total is a standard angle like 2π, 3π, etc.
-
Interpret each term as an angle in a right triangle.
- Let α=cos−153. Then cosα=53, so in a right triangle with adjacent 3 and hypotenuse 5, the opposite side is 52−32=4. Hence tanα=34.
- Let β=sin−1135. Then sinβ=135, so opposite 5, hypotenuse 13, adjacent 132−52=12. Hence tanβ=125.
- Let γ=tan−16316. Then tanγ=6316 directly.
-
We want α+β+γ.
First, combine α and β using the tangent addition formula:
tan(α+β)=1−tanαtanβtanα+tanβ=1−34⋅12534+125.
Compute numerator: 34=1216, so 1216+125=1221=47.
Denominator: 1−3620=1−95=94.
Thus
tan(α+β)=4/97/4=47⋅49=1663.
- Now add γ. We have tan(α+β)=1663 and tanγ=6316. Notice that
1663⋅6316=1,
so tan(α+β) and tanγ are reciprocals.
For positive acute angles, if tanA=tanB1, then A+B=2π (since tan(2π−θ)=cotθ). …
-
- TG EAPCET 2021Set eng-2021-08-05-FN1 markMCQQ.In a triangle ABC, if cot2A−cot2B=K, then all the possible values of K lies in (A) (0,1] (B) [1,∞) (C) (1,∞) (D) (0,1)
›Reveal solutionSolution
As printed, a difference of half-angle cotangents cannot land in any of the four bounded options; the intended quantity is the product cot2Acot2B, whose well-known value >1 in every triangle matches option (C). The printed "−" appears to be a misprint for "⋅". The possible values lie in (1,∞).
Reading the question. The difference cot2A−cot2B is unbounded and can even be negative or arbitrarily close to 0, so it fits none of the four intervals. The quantity that produces exactly one of the listed intervals is the product cot2Acot2B, giving (C) (1,∞). That standard result is worked below; the printed minus sign appears to be a misprint for a multiplication.
- Half-angles sum to a right angle. In any triangle A+B+C=π, so
2A+2B=2π−2C.
Taking tangents, tan(2A+2B)=cot2C>0 since 0<2C<2π.
- Bound the product. Expanding the left side,
1−tan2Atan2Btan2A+tan2B>0.
Each half-angle lies in (0,2π), so tan2A,tan2B>0 and the numerator is positive. Hence the denominator is positive:
1−tan2Atan2B>0 ⟹ tan2Atan2B<1.
- Invert to cotangents. …
- TG EAPCET 2023Set eng-2023-05-12-FN1 markMCQQ.If tany=cot(4π−x) then dxdy= (A) 1+cot2(4π+x)csc2(4π−x) (B) sec2y−csc2(4π−x) (C) 1+tan2(4π−x)csc2(4π−x) (D) 1+tan2(4π+x)sec2(4π+x)
›Reveal solutionSolution
Differentiate tany=cot(4π−x) implicitly: sec2ydxdy=csc2(4π−x). Since csc2(4π−x)=sec2(4π+x)=sec2y, the derivative is 1, and option (D) is the form equal to 1.
- Simplify the relation. Using cotθ=tan(2π−θ),
cot(4π−x)=tan(2π−4π+x)=tan(4π+x),
so tany=tan(4π+x), i.e. y=4π+x+nπ and sec2y=sec2(4π+x).
- Differentiate implicitly. With u=4π−x, u′=−1:
sec2ydxdy=−csc2(4π−x)⋅(−1)=csc2(4π−x).
- Convert with a cofunction identity. Because sin(4π−x)=cos(4π+x),
csc2(4π−x)=sec2(4π+x).
Therefore …
- TG EAPCET 2026Set eng-2026-05-11-FN1 markMCQQ.tan−121+tan−131+tan−132+tan−151= (A) 4π (B) tan−1(117) (C) 2π (D) tan−1(2423)
›Reveal solutionSolution
The sum of the four arctangents simplifies to π/4 by repeatedly applying the tangent addition formula and noticing that the combined angle lies in the first quadrant. The correct option is (A).
We are asked to evaluate
tan−121+tan−131+tan−132+tan−151.
The key idea is to combine arctangents two at a time using the formula
tan−1a+tan−1b=tan−11−aba+b,
but we must always check the quadrant of the resulting angle. Since all given fractions are positive and less than 1, each arctangent lies in (0,π/4). Their sum will be less than π, so we can safely use the formula without worrying about adding π corrections.
- Combine the first two terms Let α=tan−121 and β=tan−131. Then
tan(α+β)=1−21⋅3121+31=1−6165=5/65/6=1.
Since α,β<π/4, their sum is less than π/2 and positive, so
α+β=tan−11=4π.
- Combine the next two terms Let γ=tan−132 and δ=tan−151. Then
tan(γ+δ)=1−32⋅5132+51=1−1521510+153=13/1513/15=1.
Again, both angles are less than π/4, so their sum is also π/4.
- Add the two results Now we have
(tan−121+tan−131)+(tan−132+tan−151)=4π+4π=2π.
That would suggest the answer is π/2, but wait — we must check if the sum of all four original angles really equals π/2 or if there is a subtlety.
Watch outThe sum of two arctangents each equal to π/4 is π/2, but the original four angles are all less than π/4, so their total is less than π. However, π/2 is a valid possibility. But let’s verify by combining all four at once to be safe.
- Combine all four directly Let S=tan−121+tan−131+tan−132+tan−151. …
- TG EAPCET 2026Set eng-2026-05-10-FN1 markMCQQ.If y=sin−1(1+sin4x1−cos2x) then dxdy= (A) 1+sin4x2cos2x (B) 1+sin4x2sin2x (C) 1+sin8x2cos2x (D) 1+sin8x2sin2x
›Reveal solutionSolution
The key is to simplify the argument of the inverse sine using trigonometric identities before differentiating. After simplification, the derivative becomes 1+sin4x2sin2x, which matches option (B).
We start with
y=sin−1(1+sin4x1−cos2x).
Concept and intuition
The expression inside the inverse sine looks messy, but the numerator 1−cos2x is a classic form that simplifies to 2sin2x. That’s a huge clue: the whole fraction might simplify to something like 1+sin4x2sin2x, which is a perfect candidate for the identity sin−1(1+t22t)=2tan−1t (for ∣t∣≤1). That substitution makes differentiation straightforward.
Step-by-step
- Simplify the numerator Using the double-angle identity:
1−cos2x=2sin2x.
So the argument becomes
1+sin4x2sin2x.
- Recognize a standard form Let t=sin2x. Then the argument is
1+t22t.
This is exactly the form 1+t22t, which appears in the identity
sin−1(1+t22t)=2tan−1tfor ∣t∣≤1.
Since t=sin2x∈[0,1], the condition holds. Therefore
y=2tan−1(sin2x).
- Differentiate Differentiate y=2tan−1(sin2x):
dxdy=2⋅1+(sin2x)21⋅dxd(sin2x).
The derivative of sin2x is 2sinxcosx=sin2x. So …
- TG EAPCET 2021Set eng-2021-08-06-FN1 markMCQQ.2tan−1(31)+tan−1(71)= (A) tan−1(2949) (B) 2π (C) 0 (D) 4π
›Reveal solutionSolution
We simplify the expression by first converting 2tan−1(31) into a single tan−1 term, then combining it with tan−1(71) using the sum formula for inverse tangents. The final result is 4π.
The problem asks us to evaluate an expression involving inverse tangent functions. The key to solving this is to use the standard addition formulas for inverse tangents to simplify the expression step-by-step. We have a term of the form 2tan−1x and then a sum of two tan−1 terms.
Here are the relevant formulas we will use:
2tan−1x=tan−1(1−x22x), for −1<x<1.
[!FORMULA]
tan−1x+tan−1y=tan−1(1−xyx+y), for xy<1.
Let's break down the calculation.
- Simplify the 2tan−1(31) term: We start by simplifying the first part of the expression, 2tan−1(31). We use the formula 2tan−1x=tan−1(1−x22x). Here, x=31. Since −1<31<1, the formula is applicable.
2tan−1(31)=tan−1(1−(31)22(31))
=tan−1(1−9132)
=tan−1(99−132)
=tan−1(9832)
To simplify the fraction, we multiply the numerator by the reciprocal of the denominator:=tan−1(32×89)
=tan−1(2418)
=tan−1(43)
So, the original expression becomes $\tan^{-1} \left( \frac{3}{4} \right) + \tan^{-1} \left( \frac{1}{7} \right)$.2. Combine the two tan−1 terms:
Now we have an expression of the form tan−1x+tan−1y, where x=43 and y=71. We use the formula tan−1x+tan−1y=tan−1(1−xyx+y).
First, we check the condition xy<1:
xy=(43)(71)=283. Since 283<1, the formula is applicable. …
- TG EAPCET 2024Set eng-2024-05-10-FN1 markMCQQ.If sinh−1(−3)+cosh−1(2)=K, then coshK= (A) log(2−3) (B) log(2+3) (C) 0 (D) 1
›Reveal solutionSolution
The key idea is to evaluate the inverse hyperbolic functions as real numbers, sum them, and then compute the hyperbolic cosine of the result. The final value is 1, so the correct option is (D).
We are given
sinh−1(−3)+cosh−1(2)=K
and asked for coshK.
Concept and Intuition
Inverse hyperbolic functions are defined in terms of logarithms, but we can also evaluate them by recalling the definitions:
- sinh−1x is the number whose hyperbolic sine is x.
- cosh−1x (for x≥1) is the non-negative number whose hyperbolic cosine is x.
We can compute each term exactly, then add them, and finally take cosh of the sum. A useful identity:
cosh(a+b)=coshacoshb+sinhasinhb
will let us avoid explicitly finding K as a logarithm — we can directly compute coshK from the known values of sinh and cosh of the individual terms.
Step-by-step solution
- Find sinh−1(−3) Let a=sinh−1(−3). Then sinha=−3. Recall that sinha=2ea−e−a. Solving:
2ea−e−a=−3⇒ea−e−a=−23
Multiply by ea:
e2a+23ea−1=0
Solve the quadratic in ea:
ea=2−23±12+4=2−23±4=−3±2
Since ea>0, we take ea=2−3 (because 2−3>0).
Thus a=log(2−3).
So sinh−1(−3)=log(2−3).
- Find cosh−1(2) Let b=cosh−1(2). Then coshb=2 and b≥0. Using coshb=2eb+e−b:
2eb+e−b=2⇒eb+e−b=4
Multiply by eb:
e2b−4eb+1=0
Solve:
eb=24±16−4=24±23=2±3 …
- TG EAPCET 2024Set eng-2024-05-09-AN1 markMCQQ.If cosx+cosy=32 and sinx−siny=43, then sin(x−y)+cos(x−y)= (A) 145161 (B) 145127 (C) 21 (D) 98
›Reveal solutionSolution
We use sum‑to‑product identities to find cos2x+y and sin2x+y, then compute sin(x−y) and cos(x−y) via double‑angle formulas, obtaining 145161.
Concept & Intuition
We are given two equations mixing sums and differences of sines and cosines. The classic trick is to rewrite each as a product using sum‑to‑product identities. That isolates the half‑sum and half‑difference angles. Then we can find sin2x−y and cos2x−y from the given numbers, and finally use double‑angle formulas to get sin(x−y) and cos(x−y).
- Apply sum‑to‑product identities
cosx+cosy=2cos2x+ycos2x−y=32
sinx−siny=2cos2x+ysin2x−y=43
- Divide the two equations to eliminate cos2x+y (provided it is nonzero):
2cos2x+ycos2x−y2cos2x+ysin2x−y=2/33/4
tan2x−y=43⋅23=89
- Find sin2x−y and cos2x−y from the tangent. Let t=2x−y. Then tant=89. Construct a right triangle: opposite = 9, adjacent = 8, hypotenuse = 92+82=145. Hence
sint=1459,cost=1458.
- Use double‑angle formulas to get sin(x−y) and cos(x−y):
🎓Unlock everything free for 14 days
- ✓Full step-by-step solutions
- ✓Concept-first explanations
- ✓Methods, shortcuts & mistakes
- ✓PYQ mapping + timed mock tests
Full access for 14 days. No credit card required.