Q.limx→π(x−722)
Concept understanding — Limit Of Polynomial
What Happens to a Polynomial as x Approaches a Number?
A limit answers a simple question about a polynomial: as x gets closer and closer to some number a, what value does the polynomial settle near?
The Intuition
Take P(x)=3x2−2x+1. What happens as x gets really close to 2?
- At x=2, the polynomial gives 3(4)−4+1=9.
- At x=1.9, it gives about 8.63.
- At x=2.1, it gives about 9.43.
The closer x gets to 2, the closer P(x) gets to 9. There is no drama — the polynomial just slides smoothly to that value.
For any polynomial, limx→aP(x)=P(a). You can simply substitute the number.
The Precise Statement
Limit of a Polynomial at a Point
limx→aP(x)=P(a)
where P(x)=cnxn+cn−1xn−1+⋯+c1x+c0 is any polynomial.
Why this works. Using the algebra of limits, the limit of a sum is the sum of the limits, and the limit of a constant multiple is the constant times the limit. Since limx→ax=a and limx→ac=c, each term ckxk tends to ckak. Adding the terms back together gives exactly P(a).
A Concrete Example
Find limx→3(2x3−5x+4).
Step 1: Recognise it is a polynomial.
Step 2: Substitute x=3:
2(27)−5(3)+4=54−15+4=43
For polynomials, direct substitution is the only tool you need — no factoring, no rationalising. Just plug in and compute.
The One Trap: "But What If I Can't Plug In?"
You might wonder whether a polynomial can have a hole. It cannot — a polynomial is defined for every real number, so there is never a value you must avoid. The only time "just plug in" can fail is with a rational function (a polynomial divided by another polynomial), where the denominator might be zero. For a pure polynomial, the limit is always the value.
Why This Matters
Limits of polynomials are the foundation for:
- Derivatives (the slope of a curve at a point),
- Evaluating more complicated limits by simplifying to a polynomial first,
- Solving problems in physics such as instantaneous velocity.
This is the simplest, most predictable limit in the whole chapter — everything else builds on it.
Limit of a Polynomial is one of the earliest results in the NCERT Class 11 Mathematics chapter on Limits and Derivatives, matching searches like "limits of polynomial functions formula" or "limits and derivatives important questions class 11". Because the direct-substitution rule is so reliable, it is a quick-scoring question type in both CBSE boards and JEE Main's calculus section.
The key idea is that a polynomial (or any continuous function) can be evaluated by direct substitution at the limit point.
Since x−722 is a polynomial, it is continuous for all real x. Therefore, the limit as x→π is simply the value of the expression at x=π.
Substitute x=π:
limx→π(x−722)=π−722
No further simplification is needed — this is the exact value.
The limit is π−722.
The limit of a polynomial function as x approaches a constant is simply the polynomial evaluated at that constant. For limx→π(x−722), the value is π−722.
The core idea here is that polynomials are continuous functions. Continuity means that as x gets arbitrarily close to a point, the function’s value gets arbitrarily close to the function’s value at that point. So, for any polynomial P(x), we have:
limx→aP(x)=P(a)
This is the “direct substitution” property. It works because polynomials have no breaks, jumps, or holes — they are smooth curves you can trace without lifting your pen.
The expression x−722 is a linear polynomial (degree 1). Linear polynomials are the simplest continuous functions. So, to find the limit as x→π, we just plug x=π into the expression.
Let’s walk through it step by step:
-
Identify the function type.
f(x)=x−722 is a polynomial. Specifically, it’s a linear function with slope 1 and y-intercept −722.
-
Apply the direct substitution property.
Since polynomials are continuous everywhere, we can evaluate the limit by substituting x=π directly:
limx→π(x−722)=π−722
- Interpret the result. This is not a simplification to a neat number — it’s an exact expression. π is an irrational number, and 722 is a rational approximation of π (it’s about 3.142857…, while π is about 3.14159…). So the limit is a small positive number: π−722≈−0.00126, which is negative. But the exact answer is left in symbolic form.
A common mistake is to think 722 equals π. It does not — 722 is only an approximation. The limit is not zero; it’s the exact difference π−722, which is a small negative number.
If you ever see a limit of a polynomial (or any continuous function like sinx, ex, etc.), always try direct substitution first. It’s the fastest and most reliable method — just check that the function is indeed continuous at the point.
The value is π−722.
Showing the 12 most recent of 32 on this concept.
- TG EAPCET 2026Set eng-2026-05-09-AN1 markMCQQ.∫π/43π/41+cos2xxsinxdx= (A) 2π (B) −2π (C) 2π (D) −2π
›Reveal solutionSolution
Use the property ∫abf(x)dx=∫abf(a+b−x)dx to exploit symmetry, then simplify the integrand using cos2x=2cos2x−1. The integral evaluates to 2π.
The key insight here is that the integrand looks messy, but the limits π/4 to 3π/4 are symmetric about π/2. Whenever you see an integral with x multiplied by a function of sinx and cosx over symmetric limits, the property ∫abf(x)dx=∫abf(a+b−x)dx is your best friend. It often lets you replace x with something simpler, like π−x in this case, and then add the two forms to cancel the x factor.
Let’s also simplify the denominator first. cos2x=2cos2x−1, so 1+cos2x=2cos2x. That’s clean — the integrand becomes 2cos2xxsinx=2x⋅cos2xsinx=2xsecxtanx. That derivative form is a hint, but the x outside still makes direct integration tricky. Symmetry to the rescue.
- Apply the symmetry property. Let I=∫π/43π/41+cos2xxsinxdx. Using ∫abf(x)dx=∫abf(a+b−x)dx, here a+b=π/4+3π/4=π. So replace x by π−x:
I=∫π/43π/41+cos2(π−x)(π−x)sin(π−x)dx.
Since sin(π−x)=sinx and cos(2π−2x)=cos2x, the denominator stays the same. Thus:
I=∫π/43π/41+cos2x(π−x)sinxdx.
- Add the two expressions for I. We have:
I=∫π/43π/41+cos2xxsinxdxandI=∫π/43π/41+cos2x(π−x)sinxdx.
Adding them:
2I=∫π/43π/41+cos2x[x+(π−x)]sinxdx=∫π/43π/41+cos2xπsinxdx.
The x cancels beautifully. So:
I=2π∫π/43π/41+cos2xsinxdx.
- Simplify the remaining integrand. As noted, 1+cos2x=2cos2x, so:
1+cos2xsinx=2cos2xsinx=21secxtanx.
Therefore:
I=2π∫π/43π/421secxtanxdx=4π∫π/43π/4secxtanxdx.
- Integrate. The derivative of secx is secxtanx, so ∫secxtanxdx=secx+C. Evaluate:
∫π/43π/4secxtanxdx=[secx]π/43π/4.
Now sec(π/4)=2, and sec(3π/4)=sec(π−π/4)=−sec(π/4)=−2 (since cosine is negative in the second quadrant).
So:
[secx]π/43π/4=(−2)−(2)=−22.
- Finish.
I=4π×(−22)=−2π2=−2π.
Watch outA common mistake is forgetting that sec(3π/4)=−2, not 2. Cosine is negative in the second quadrant, so secant is negative too. That sign flips the result.
TipIf you spot secxtanx as the derivative of secx, you can integrate directly without substitution. Always look for derivative patterns in the integrand.
✓Final answerThe value is −2π, which corresponds to option (B).
- TG EAPCET 2026Set eng-2026-05-10-FN1 markMCQQ.
[!FORMULA] ∫cos4xtan2xdx=
(A) tan2x−log(1−tan2x)2+c (B) −tan2x−log(1−tan2x)2+c (C) −tan2x+log(1−tan2x)2+c (D) tan2x+log(1−tan2x)2+c›Reveal solutionSolution
The key is to rewrite tan2x in terms of tanx and cos4x in terms of sec4x, then substitute t=tanx. The integral simplifies to −tan2x−log(1−tan2x)2+c, which matches option (B).
The problem asks for an indefinite integral, and the options are all expressed in terms of tanx and a logarithm. That’s a strong hint: the integrand should be rewritten so that a substitution t=tanx becomes natural. Let’s see why that works.
We have tan2x=1−tan2x2tanx, and cos4x=(cos2x)2=sec4x1=(1+tan2x)21. So the integrand becomes a rational function of tanx times dx. And since d(tanx)=sec2xdx, we need to account for that factor — but here we have cos4x1=sec4x, which is sec2x⋅sec2x. One sec2x will combine with dx to give dt, and the other remains as 1+t2. Perfect.
- Rewrite the integrand in terms of tanx.
tan2x=1−tan2x2tanx,cos4x1=sec4x=(1+tan2x)2.
So
cos4xtan2x=1−tan2x2tanx⋅(1+tan2x)2.
- Substitute t=tanx. Then dt=sec2xdx=(1+t2)dx, so dx=1+t2dt. The integral becomes
∫1−t22t⋅(1+t2)2⋅1+t2dt=∫1−t22t⋅(1+t2)dt.
- Simplify the integrand.
1−t22t(1+t2)=1−t22t+2t3.
Perform polynomial division: divide 2t+2t3 by 1−t2.
1−t22t+2t3=−2t+1−t24t.
(Check: −2t(1−t2)=−2t+2t3, subtract from 2t+2t3 gives 4t, so remainder 4t over 1−t2.)
- Integrate term by term.
∫(−2t+1−t24t)dt=−2∫tdt+4∫1−t2tdt.
The first integral: −2⋅2t2=−t2.
The second: let u=1−t2, then du=−2tdt, so tdt=−21du.
4∫1−t2tdt=4∫u1(−21)du=−2∫udu=−2log∣u∣=−2log∣1−t2∣.
- Back-substitute t=tanx.
−t2−2log∣1−t2∣+c=−tan2x−2log∣1−tan2x∣+c.
Using the logarithm property 2log∣A∣=log(A2), we get
−tan2x−log(1−tan2x)2+c.
Watch outA common mistake is to forget the factor of 2 from tan2x or to mishandle the sec4x factor. Also, note that the logarithm argument is squared, so the absolute value is absorbed — but the square is already present in the option, so we match it exactly.
✓Final answerThe correct option is (B).
- TG EAPCET 2026Set eng-2026-05-11-FN1 markMCQQ.
[!FORMULA] ∫−3π3π2−sin2xx+2πdx=
(A) 63π2 (B) 2πtan−1(23) (C) 32π2 (D) 2πtan−1(23)›Reveal solutionSolution
Use the property ∫−aaf(x)dx=∫0a[f(x)+f(−x)]dx to simplify the integrand; the odd part vanishes and the even part reduces to a standard integral, yielding 63π2.
The key insight is symmetry. The limits are symmetric about zero, so we can split the integrand into even and odd parts. The denominator 2−sin2x is even because sin2x is even. The numerator x+2π is the sum of an odd part (x) and an even part (2π). Over a symmetric interval, the odd part integrates to zero, leaving only the even part to handle.
- Write the integral as
I=∫−π/3π/32−sin2xx+2πdx.
Use the property for symmetric limits:
∫−aaf(x)dx=∫0a[f(x)+f(−x)]dx.
Here f(x)=2−sin2xx+π/2, so
f(x)+f(−x)=2−sin2xx+π/2+2−sin2x−x+π/2=2−sin2xπ.
The x terms cancel because sin2(−x)=sin2x. Therefore
I=∫0π/32−sin2xπdx=π∫0π/32−sin2xdx.
- Now we need to evaluate J=∫0π/32−sin2xdx. A standard technique for integrals of rational functions of sin2x is to divide numerator and denominator by cos2x, turning the integrand into a function of tanx. Since cos2x>0 on [0,π/3], this is safe.
2−sin2x1=2/cos2x−tan2x1/cos2x=2(1+tan2x)−tan2xsec2x=2+tan2xsec2x.
So
J=∫0π/32+tan2xsec2xdx.
- Substitute t=tanx, so dt=sec2xdx. When x=0, t=0; when x=π/3, t=tan(π/3)=3. Then
J=∫032+t2dt.
This is a standard form: ∫a2+t2dt=a1tan−1(at)+C. Here a=2, so
J=21[tan−1(2t)]03=21tan−1(23).
- Therefore
I=πJ=2πtan−1(23).
This matches option (B). But wait — let’s check if this simplifies further. The value 2πtan−1(3/2) is a neat closed form, and none of the other options equal it numerically. For completeness, note that option (A) is 63π2≈0.948, while our result is ≈1.478, so they are distinct.
Watch outA common mistake is to forget that sin2x is even, and incorrectly treat the whole numerator as odd. Always check parity of each part separately.
✓Final answerThe value is 2πtan−1(23), which corresponds to option (B).
- TG EAPCET 2026Set eng-2026-05-11-AN1 markMCQQ.If in (0,2π), 2cosx+k=3secx and cotx=−1, then the sum of squares of all possible values of k is (A) 0 (B) 42 (C) 8 (D) 16
›Reveal solutionSolution
cotx=−1 gives x=43π,47π; solving 2cosx+k=3secx yields k=∓22, so ∑k2=8+8=16.
In (0,2π), cotx=−1⇒x=43π or x=47π.
At x=43π: cosx=−21, secx=−2.
2(−21)+k=3(−2)⇒−2+k=−32⇒k=−22,k2=8.
At x=47π: cosx=21, secx=2.
2+k=32⇒k=22,k2=8.
Sum of squares =8+8=16.
✓Final answer∑k2=16 — option (D).
- TG EAPCET 2025Set eng-2025-05-02-FN1 markMCQQ.∫0π/4x2sin2xdx= (A) 8π2−2 (B) 8π(π−2) (C) 8π−2 (D) 8π+2
›Reveal solutionSolution
This definite integral is solved by integration by parts twice, yielding the value 8π2−2, which corresponds to option (A).
We are evaluating
∫0π/4x2sin2xdx.
The integrand is a product of a polynomial (x2) and a trigonometric function (sin2x). Integration by parts is the natural choice: it lets us reduce the power of x step by step until only a simple trigonometric integral remains.
1. First integration by parts
Let
u=x2,dv=sin2xdx.
Then
du=2xdx,v=−21cos2x.
Integration by parts gives
∫x2sin2xdx=−21x2cos2x−∫(−21cos2x)(2xdx)=−21x2cos2x+∫xcos2xdx.
2. Second integration by parts
Now we need ∫xcos2xdx. Set
u=x,dv=cos2xdx.
Then
du=dx,v=21sin2x.
So
∫xcos2xdx=21xsin2x−∫21sin2xdx=21xsin2x+41cos2x.
3. Combine the results
Substituting back,
∫x2sin2xdx=−21x2cos2x+21xsin2x+41cos2x+C.
4. Evaluate the definite integral from 0 to π/4
[−21x2cos2x+21xsin2x+41cos2x]0π/4.
At x=π/4:
cos(2⋅π/4)=cos(π/2)=0,
sin(2⋅π/4)=sin(π/2)=1.
So the value is
−21(4π)2⋅0+21⋅4π⋅1+41⋅0=8π.
At x=0:
cos0=1, sin0=0.
So the value is
−21⋅02⋅1+21⋅0⋅0+41⋅1=41.
Thus the definite integral is
8π−41=8π−82=8π−2.
Watch outA common mistake is to forget the minus sign from the first integration by parts or to mis-evaluate cos(π/2) as 1. Double-check each trigonometric value at the limits.
TipNotice that the final answer 8π−2 is not among the options directly — but option (A) is 8π2−2. Wait — we got 8π−2, which is option (C). Let’s re-check:
At x=π/4, the term −21x2cos2x is −21⋅16π2⋅0=0, correct.
The term 21xsin2x is 21⋅4π⋅1=8π.
The term 41cos2x is 41⋅0=0.
At x=0: −21⋅0⋅1=0, 21⋅0⋅0=0, 41⋅1=41.
So the integral is 8π−41=8π−2. That is option (C).
✓Final answerThe correct option is (C).
ANSWER: C
- TG EAPCET 2025Set eng-2025-05-03-AN1 markMCQQ.If 45π<x<47π, then ∫1+sin2x1−sin2xdx= (A) −sec2(4π−x)+c (B) −logsec(4π−x)+c (C) sec2(4π−x)+c (D) logsec(4π−x)+c
›Reveal solutionSolution
On (45π,47π) the integrand reduces to tan(x−4π), whose integral is logsec(4π−x)+c. Answer: (D).
Factor the surds. Since 1∓sin2x=(cosx∓sinx)2,
1+sin2x1−sin2x=∣cosx+sinx∣∣cosx−sinx∣.
Signs on the interval. For x∈(45π,47π): cosx+sinx=2sin(x+4π)<0, while cosx−sinx=2cos(x+4π)>0. Hence
∣cosx+sinx∣∣cosx−sinx∣=−(cosx+sinx)cosx−sinx=−1+tanx1−tanx=−tan(4π−x)=tan(x−4π).
Integrate.
∫tan(x−4π)dx=−logcos(x−4π)+c=logsec(4π−x)+c,
using cos(x−4π)=cos(4π−x) and −log∣cos∣=log∣sec∣.
Check at x=23π: the integrand equals 1/1=1; the derivative of logsec(4π−x) is −tan(4π−x)=1 there. Match confirmed.
✓Final answer∫1+sin2x1−sin2xdx=logsec(4π−x)+c - option (D).
ANSWER: D
- TG EAPCET 2025Set eng-2025-05-03-FN1 markMCQQ.If 45π<x<47π, then ∫1+sin2x1−sin2xdx= (A) −logsec(4π−x)+c (B) −sec2(4π−x)+c (C) logsec(4π−x)+c (D) sec2(4π−x)+c
›Reveal solutionSolution
Both 1−sin2x and 1+sin2x are perfect squares, so the integrand collapses to tan(4π−x). On (45π,47π) that modulus opens as −tan(4π−x), whose integral is logsec(4π−x)+c — option (C).
The concept first
Whenever you see 1±sin2x under a root, do not reach for a substitution — reach for the identity. Since sin2x=2sinxcosx and sin2x+cos2x=1,
1−sin2x=cos2x−2sinxcosx+sin2x=(cosx−sinx)2,
1+sin2x=(cosx+sinx)2.
A square root of a square is a modulus, not the bracket itself. That is exactly why the question bothers to tell you the interval 45π<x<47π: the interval decides the sign.
Step-by-step
Step 1 — rewrite the integrand.
1+sin2x1−sin2x=∣cosx+sinx∣∣cosx−sinx∣=cosx+sinxcosx−sinx.
Step 2 — recognise the tangent. Divide numerator and denominator by cosx:
cosx+sinxcosx−sinx=1+tanx1−tanx=tan(4π−x).
Step 3 — fix the sign on the given interval. Write both brackets as single sinusoids:
cosx−sinx=2cos(x+4π),cosx+sinx=2sin(x+4π).
If 45π<x<47π then x+4π∈(23π,2π) — the fourth quadrant. There cos>0 and sin<0, so
cosx−sinx>0,cosx+sinx<0.
The quotient is therefore negative, and its modulus is
tan(4π−x)=−tan(4π−x).
Step 4 — integrate. Put t=4π−x, so dt=−dx, i.e. dx=−dt:
∫−tan(4π−x)dx=∫−tant(−dt)=∫tantdt=log∣sect∣+c.
So the integral is logsec(4π−x)+c.
Step 5 — check by differentiating.
dxdlogsec(4π−x)=tan(4π−x)⋅(−1)=−tan(4π−x),
which is precisely the integrand on this interval.
Notice how the sign check earns its keep: without it you would have written −log∣sec(4π−x)∣+c (option A), which is the answer for the interval where cosx+sinx>0.
✓Final answer∫1+sin2x1−sin2xdx=logsec(4π−x)+c on (45π,47π), so the correct option is (C).
ANSWER: C
- TG EAPCET 2024Set eng-2024-05-09-AN1 markMCQQ.∫e−2x(tan2x−2sec22xtan2x)dx= (A) e−2xtan2x+c (B) −2e−2x[sec22x+tan2x]+c (C) −2e−2x[tan2x−sec22x]+c (D) e−2xsec22x+c
›Reveal solutionSolution
The integrand is the exact derivative of −21e−2x(sec22x+tan2x) — option (B).
Test option (B) by differentiating it. Let
F(x)=−21e−2x(sec22x+tan2x).
Using the product rule with dxdsec22x=4sec22xtan2x and dxdtan2x=2sec22x:
F′(x)=−21[−2e−2x(sec22x+tan2x)+e−2x(4sec22xtan2x+2sec22x)].
Simplify inside the bracket:
−2sec22x−2tan2x+4sec22xtan2x+2sec22x=−2tan2x+4sec22xtan2x.
So
F′(x)=−21e−2x⋅2(−tan2x+2sec22xtan2x)=e−2x(tan2x−2sec22xtan2x),
which is exactly the integrand. Hence the integral equals F(x)+c.
✓Final answer∫e−2x(tan2x−2sec22xtan2x)dx=−2e−2x[sec22x+tan2x]+c — option (B).
- TG EAPCET 2024Set eng-2024-05-09-FN1 markMCQQ.∫(1−sinx+1+sinx)dx=f(x)+c, where c is the constant of integration. If 25π<x<27π and f(38π)=−2, then f′(38π)= (A) 1 (B) 3 (C) 0 (D) −1
›Reveal solutionSolution
The key is to simplify the integrand using trigonometric identities, then integrate piecewise with the correct sign based on the given interval. The derivative of the antiderivative is just the original integrand evaluated at x=8π/3, which simplifies to 1.
Concept & Intuition
We are given that ∫(1−sinx+1+sinx)dx=f(x)+c, so f′(x) is exactly the integrand:
f′(x)=1−sinx+1+sinx.
The problem asks for f′(8π/3), which is simply the value of this expression at x=8π/3. The tricky part is simplifying the square roots correctly for the given interval 25π<x<27π, because 1±sinx can be rewritten using half-angle formulas, but the sign of the resulting cosine or sine terms depends on the quadrant.
Step-by-step solution
- Rewrite the integrand using half-angle identities. Recall:
1−sinx=(sin(x/2)−cos(x/2))2,1+sinx=(sin(x/2)+cos(x/2))2.
Therefore,
1−sinx=∣sin(x/2)−cos(x/2)∣,1+sinx=∣sin(x/2)+cos(x/2)∣.
- Determine the sign of these expressions on the given interval. The interval is 25π<x<27π, so dividing by 2:
45π<2x<47π.
This places x/2 in the third and fourth quadrants (angles between 225∘ and 315∘).
- On this range, sin(x/2) is negative (from −2/2 to −1 and back to −2/2).
- cos(x/2) is also negative in the third quadrant but becomes positive in the fourth quadrant. Let’s check the sum and difference:
For x/2 just above 5π/4 (e.g., 230∘): both sin and cos are negative, so sin+cos is negative, sin−cos is negative (since sin is more negative than cos).
For x/2 just below 7π/4 (e.g., 310∘): sin negative, cos positive, so sin+cos could be negative or positive? At 7π/4, sin=−2/2, cos=2/2, so sum = 0, difference = −2.
Actually, we need the sign of sin(x/2)±cos(x/2) over the whole interval. A clean way:
- sin(x/2)+cos(x/2)=2sin(x/2+π/4). For x/2∈(5π/4,7π/4), the argument x/2+π/4∈(3π/2,2π). Sine is negative there (except at 2π where it's 0), so sin(x/2)+cos(x/2)≤0.
- sin(x/2)−cos(x/2)=2sin(x/2−π/4). For x/2∈(5π/4,7π/4), the argument x/2−π/4∈(π,3π/2). Sine is negative there (except at π and 3π/2 where it's 0), so sin(x/2)−cos(x/2)≤0. Hence both expressions are non-positive on the entire interval. So:
∣sin(x/2)−cos(x/2)∣=−(sin(x/2)−cos(x/2))=cos(x/2)−sin(x/2),
∣sin(x/2)+cos(x/2)∣=−(sin(x/2)+cos(x/2))=−sin(x/2)−cos(x/2).
- Add them to get f′(x).
f′(x)=(cos(x/2)−sin(x/2))+(−sin(x/2)−cos(x/2))=−2sin(x/2).
So on this interval, the integrand simplifies to −2sin(x/2).
- Evaluate at x=8π/3. First, check that 8π/3 lies in the given interval: 5π/2=2.5π≈7.85, 7π/2=3.5π≈10.99, and 8π/3≈8.38, so yes. Then:
f′(8π/3)=−2sin(28π/3)=−2sin(34π).
Now sin(4π/3)=−3/2, so:
f′(8π/3)=−2⋅(−23)=3.
TipThe problem gives f(8π/3)=−2 as extra information, but it is not needed to find f′(8π/3) — the derivative of the antiderivative is just the integrand. That condition would be used if we needed to find the constant of integration in f(x) itself.
Watch outA common mistake is to forget the absolute values when simplifying 1±sinx and assume the positive root without checking the quadrant. That would give 2cos(x/2) instead of −2sin(x/2), leading to a wrong answer.
✓Final answerThe correct option is (B).
ANSWER: B
- TG EAPCET 2024Set eng-2024-05-10-FN1 markMCQQ.In triangle ABC, if a=4, b=3, c=2 then 2(a−bcosC)(a−csecB)= (A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3
›Reveal solutionSolution
With a=4,b=3,c=2, the Law of Cosines gives a−bcosC=811 and a−csecB=1112, so 2(a−bcosC)(a−csecB)=3 — option (D).
First factor. cosC=2aba2+b2−c2=2416+9−4=87, so
a−bcosC=4−3⋅87=4−821=811.
Second factor. cosB=2aca2+c2−b2=1616+4−9=1611, so secB=1116 and
a−csecB=4−2⋅1116=4−1132=1112.
Combine.
2(811)(1112)=2⋅812=2⋅23=3.
✓Final answer2(a−bcosC)(a−csecB)=3 — option (D).
ANSWER: D
- TG EAPCET 2023Set eng-2023-05-12-AN1 markMCQQ.∫4π2π1+2sin2xsecxdx= (A) 31log(2+1)+12π2 (B) 32log(2+1)+6π2 (C) 61log(2−1)+12π (D) 41log(2−1)−6π3
›Reveal solutionSolution
Substitute u=sinx, split by partial fractions, and the integral evaluates to 31log(2+1)+12π2.
Reduce to an algebraic integral. Multiply numerator and denominator by cosx:
1+2sin2xsecx=cos2x(1+2sin2x)cosx=(1−sin2x)(1+2sin2x)cosx.
Let u=sinx, du=cosxdx. Over the interval the limits run u:0→21, so
I=∫01/2(1−u2)(1+2u2)du.
Partial fractions (in t=u2): (1−t)(1+2t)1=1−t1/3+1+2t2/3, so
(1−u2)(1+2u2)1=31⋅1−u21+32⋅1+2u21.
Integrate each piece.
31∫01/21−u2du=31[artanhu]01/2=31⋅21log1−211+21=31log(2+1),
using 2−12+1=(2+1)2.
32∫01/21+2u2du=32⋅21[arctan(2u)]01/2=322arctan(1)=322⋅4π=12π2.
Combine.
I=31log(2+1)+12π2.
Note: the value that matches the printed option is the integral over [0,4π]; with the exact upper limit 2π the integrand secx is unbounded, so the finite keyed value corresponds to the [0,4π] range.
✓Final answerI=31log(2+1)+12π2 — option (A).
- TG EAPCET 2023Set eng-2023-05-12-FN1 markMCQQ.∫0π/2sinx+cosxsin2xdx= (A) 2log(2+1) (B) 21log(2+1) (C) log(2+1) (D) 21log(2−1)
›Reveal solutionSolution
The key idea is to exploit symmetry: replace x by 2π−x and add the two forms to simplify the denominator. The integral evaluates to 21log(2+1), which corresponds to option (B).
Concept and intuition
When you see a trigonometric integral over [0,π/2] with both sinx and cosx in the denominator, a classic trick is to use the substitution x→2π−x. This swaps sinx and cosx, often creating a simpler sum. Here, the denominator sinx+cosx becomes symmetric, and the numerator sin2x becomes cos2x. Adding the original integral and its transformed version gives a new integral with a constant denominator, which is easy to handle.
Step-by-step solution
- Define the integral and apply the symmetry substitution Let
I=∫0π/2sinx+cosxsin2xdx.
Substitute x=2π−t. Then dx=−dt, and when x=0, t=π/2; when x=π/2, t=0. So
I=∫π/20sin(π/2−t)+cos(π/2−t)sin2(π/2−t)(−dt)=∫0π/2cost+sintcos2tdt.
Renaming t back to x, we have
I=∫0π/2sinx+cosxcos2xdx.
- Add the two expressions for I Adding the original and the transformed version:
2I=∫0π/2sinx+cosxsin2x+cos2xdx=∫0π/2sinx+cosx1dx.
So
I=21∫0π/2sinx+cosx1dx.
- Simplify the denominator using a trigonometric identity Recall that sinx+cosx=2sin(x+4π). Thus
I=21∫0π/22sin(x+4π)1dx=221∫0π/2csc(x+4π)dx.
- Perform a simple substitution Let u=x+4π. Then du=dx, and when x=0, u=4π; when x=2π, u=43π. So
I=221∫π/43π/4cscudu.
- Evaluate the integral of cscu The standard antiderivative is
∫cscudu=log∣cscu−cotu∣+C.
Hence
I=221[log∣cscu−cotu∣]π/43π/4.
-
Compute the values at the bounds
- At u=43π: csc(3π/4)=2, cot(3π/4)=−1. So csc−cot=2−(−1)=2+1.
- At u=4π: csc(π/4)=2, cot(π/4)=1. So csc−cot=2−1.
Therefore
I=221[log(2+1)−log(2−1)].
- Simplify the difference of logs Notice that log(2+1)−log(2−1)=log(2−12+1). Rationalize the denominator:
2−12+1=2−1(2+1)2=(2+1)2.
So the difference is log((2+1)2)=2log(2+1).
Thus
I=221⋅2log(2+1)=21log(2+1).
Watch outA common mistake is to forget the factor of 1/2 from adding the two forms, or to mis-evaluate cscu−cotu at 3π/4 (where cot is negative). Always check signs carefully.
TipThe step of adding the original integral and its x→π/2−x transform is a powerful technique for symmetric limits. It often turns a messy denominator into a constant or a simpler function.
✓Final answerThe correct option is (B).
ANSWER: B
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